Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

A. 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

B. 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

C. the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least

A. 1,000 feet and 1 mile.

B. 1,000 feet and 3 miles.

C. 2,500 feet and 3 miles.

The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is

A. 4 nautical miles.

B. 6 nautical miles.

C. 8 nautical miles.

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

A. Class C.

B. Class E.

C. Class G.

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

A. Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.

B. Make all turns to the left.

C. Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

A. when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.

B. when the associated control tower is in operation.

C. when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

A. Class B.

B. Class C.

C. Class D.

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

A. Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.

B. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME.

C. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

A. over a densely populated area.

B. in Class D airspace under special VFR.

C. except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

A. Glider.

B. Airship.

C. Aircraft refueling other aircraft.

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

A. The faster aircraft shall give way.

B. The aircraft on the left shall give way.

C. Each aircraft shall give way to the right.

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs

A. at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.

B. at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

C. at all tower controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

A. A balloon.

B. An aircraft in distress.

C. An aircraft on final approach to land.

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

A. 1 mile.

B. 3 miles.

C. 4 miles.

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

A. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

B. 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.

C. 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is

A. remain clear of clouds.

B. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

C. 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

A. 1,000 feet.

B. 1,500 feet.

C. 2,000 feet.

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

A. 1 mile.

B. 3 miles.

C. 5 miles.

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

A. flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.

B. ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.

C. ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

A. check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.

B. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.

C. announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

A. four white lights.

B. three white lights and one red light.

C. two white lights and two red lights.

(Refer to figure 48 .) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is

A. below the glide slope.

B. on the glide slope.

C. above the glide slope.

An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

A. a white light signal.

B. a green light signal.

C. an amber light signal.

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

A. pulsating white light.

B. steady white light.

C. pulsating red light.

(Refer to figure 48 .) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is

A. above the glide slope.

B. below the glide slope.

C. on the glide slope.

A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a

A. red light signal.

B. pink light signal.

C. green light signal.

(Refer to figure 49 .) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a

A. stabilized area.

B. multiple heliport.

C. closed runway.

(Refer to figure 49 .) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?

A. 'A' may be used for taxi and takeoff; 'E' may be used only as an overrun.

B. 'A' may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; 'E' may be used only as an overrun.

C. 'A' may be used only for taxiing; 'E' may be used for all operations except landings.

(Refer to figure 49 .) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?

A. Runway 30 is equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft.

B. Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.

C. The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B.

(Refer to figure 49 .) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for

A. landing.

B. taxiing and takeoff.

C. taxiing and landing.

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

A. 009° and 027° true.

B. 090° and 270° true.

C. 090° and 270° magnetic.

(Refer to figure 26 , area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) northnorthwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is

A. at the surface.

B. 3,200 feet MSL.

C. 4,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 26 , area 2.) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is

A. at the surface.

B. 3,000 feet MSL.

C. 3,100 feet MSL.

All operations within Class C airspace must be in

A. accordance with instrument flight rules.

B. compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.

C. an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.

The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is

A. 5 nautical miles.

B. 15 nautical miles.

C. 20 nautical miles.

The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

A. 1,200 feet AGL.

B. 3,000 feet AGL.

C. 4,000 feet AGL.

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

A. the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace.

B. 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.

C. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

A. the controlling agency.

B. all pilots.

C. Air Traffic Control.

(Refer to figure 27 , area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas, such as Devils Lake East MOA?

A. Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft, such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.

B. Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

C. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

(Refer to figure 21 area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?

A. Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

B. Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

C. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

A. Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.

B. Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.

C. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?

A. When flying on airways with an ATC clearance.

B. With the controlling agency's authorization.

C. Regulations do not allow this.

(Refer to figure 22 , area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?

A. IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.

B. VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots.

C. Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots.

(Refer to figure 26 , area 3.) If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

A. 120.3 MHz.

B. 122.95 MHz.

C. 126.35 MHz.

(Refer to figure 22 , area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is

A. 122.8 MHz.

B. 122.9 MHz.

C. 123.0 MHz.

(Refer to figure 23 , area 2; and figure 32 .) At Coeur D'Alene , which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?

A. 122.05 MHz.

B. 122.1/108.8 MHz.

C. 122.8 MHz.

(Refer to figure 23 , area 2; and figure 32 .) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

A. 122.05 MHz.

B. 135.075 MHz.

C. 122.8 MHz.

(Refer to figure 27 , area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is

A. 122.0 MHz.

B. 123.0 MHz.

C. 123.6 MHz.

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

A. Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.

B. Contact the tower and request permission to enter.

C. Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.

(Refer to figure 51 .) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a

A. right-quartering headwind.

B. left-quartering headwind.

C. right-quartering tailwind.

(Refer to figure 51 .) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the

A. south of the airport.

B. north of the airport.

C. southeast of the airport.

(Refer to figure 51 .) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is

A. left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18.

B. left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36.

C. right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27.

(Refer to figure 50 .) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on

A. Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.

B. Runway 22 directly into the wind.

C. Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.

(Refer to figure 50 .) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.

A. Left-hand traffic and Runway 18.

B. Right-hand traffic and Runway 18.

C. Left-hand traffic and Runway 22.

What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

A. Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.

B. Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes.

C. Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use

A. regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions.

B. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.

C. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?

A. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

B. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.

C. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

A. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.

B. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.

C. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

(Refer to figure 23 , area 2 and legend 1.) For information about the parachute jumping and glider operations at Silverwood Airport, refer to

A. notes on the border of the chart.

B. the Airport/Facility Directory.

C. the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.

(Refer to figure 24 , area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

A. 1,300 feet AGL.

B. 1,300 feet MSL.

C. 1,700 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 23 , area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

A. 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.

B. 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL.

C. 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 27 , area 1.) Identify the airspace over Lowe Airport.

A. Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

B. Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL, Class E airspace - 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.

C. Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 21 , area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is

A. 20 feet.

B. 36 feet.

C. 360 feet.

(Refer to figure 21 , area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a

A. compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace.

B. compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport.

C. visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.

(Refer to figure 26 , area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

A. 122.95 MHz.

B. 126.0 MHz.

C. 133.4 MHz.

(Refer to figure 26 , area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is

A. Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL.

B. Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL.

C. Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 24 .) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are

A. outer boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace.

B. airports with special traffic patterns.

C. visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.

(Refer to figure 21 , area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

A. Mode C transponder and omnireceiver.

B. Mode C transponder and two-way radio.

C. Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.

(Refer to figure 26 , area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to

A. 700 feet AGL.

B. 2,900 feet MSL.

C. 2,500 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 27 , area 6.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is

A. Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace.

B. Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL.

C. Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

(Refer to figure 27 , area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are

A. 1 mile and clear of clouds.

B. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

C. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

(Refer to figure 27 , area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown below 700 feet AGL are

A. 1 mile and clear of clouds.

B. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

C. 3 miles and clear of clouds.

Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from

A. 700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.

B. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.

C. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.

When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should

A. enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.

B. make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.

C. fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?

A. The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.

B. Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated.

C. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?

A. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.

B. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.

C. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to

A. 5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.

B. 8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.

C. 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are

A. authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

B. not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

C. not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.

Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The rightof- way belongs to the aircraft

A. at the higher altitude.

B. at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft.

C. that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake the other aircraft.

Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? They are

A. authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

B. not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.

C. not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.

The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of

A. 14,500 feet MSL.

B. 10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.

C. 10,000 feet MSL regardless of height above ground.

What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?

A. 1 mile visibility; clear of clouds.

B. 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.

C. 5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet below.

When flying a glider above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, what minimum flight visibility is required?

A. 3 NM.

B. 5 SM.

C. 5 NM.

When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to

A. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

B. 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.

C. 30 SM, and be transponder equipped.

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are

A. authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

B. not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM.

C. not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?

A. May conduct operations under visual flight rules.

B. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).

C. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?

A. Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.

B. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).

C. Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.

(Refer to figure 51 .) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found

A. upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.

B. at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.

C. near the approach end of ILS runways.

(Refer to figure 51 .) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft

A. passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure.

B. is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol.

C. is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.

(Refer to figure 53 ) GIVEN: Location -Madera Airport (MAE) Altitude 1,000 ft AGL Position 7 NM north of Madera (MAE) Time 3 p.m. local Flight visibility 1 SM You are VFR approaching Madera Airport for a landing from the north. You

A. are in violation of the CFR's; you need 3 miles of visibility under VFR.

B. are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to remain clear of Class E airspace and may continue for landing.

C. may descend to 800 feet AGL (Pattern Altitude) after entering Class E airspace and continue to the airport.

When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of

A. Special VFR airspace.

B. Class D airspace.

C. Class B airspace

(Refer to figure 52 , point 9) The alert area depicted within the blue lines is an area in which

A. there is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.

B. the flight of aircraft is prohibited.

C. the flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction.

(Refer to figure 52 , point 6) Mosier Airport is

A. an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots.

B. a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace.

C. a nonpublic use airport.

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

A. Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta.

B. Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta.

C. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

(Refer to figure 53 , point 1) This thin black shaded line is most likely

A. an arrival route.

B. a military training route.

C. a state boundary line.

(Refer to figure 54 , point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of

A. both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.

B. 8,000 feet MSL.

C. 2,100 feet AGL.

(Refer to figure 54 , point 1) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?

A. 2,503 feet MSL.

B. 2,901 feet MSL.

C. 3,297 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 54 , point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco International Airport is

A. the outer segment of Class B airspace.

B. an area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.

C. a Mode C veil boundary where a balloon may penetrate without a transponder provided it remains below 8,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 52 , point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is

A. 700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.

B. 1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.

C. both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.

(Refer to figure 52 , point 8) The floor of the Class E airspace over the town of Auburn is

A. 1,200 feet MSL.

B. 700 feet AGL.

C. 1,200 feet AGL.

(Refer to figure 52 , point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is

A. the surface.

B. 700 feet AGL.

C. 1,200 feet AGL.

(Refer to figure 52 , point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at

A. the surface.

B. 3,823 feet MSL.

C. 700 feet AGL.

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

A. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.

B. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.

C. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

To operate an aircraft on a solo flight within Class B airspace, a student must have a logbook endorsement showing that he/she has

A. received flight instruction from any authorized flight instructor on operating within Class B airspace.

B. received ground instruction on and flight instruction in that specific airspace for which solo flight is authorized.

C. within the preceding 90 days, been found to be competent by any flight instructor having knowledge of the student's experience in that specific airspace.

What is the correct departure procedure at a noncontrolled airport?

A. The FAA-approved departure procedure for that airport.

B. Make all left turns, except a 45° right turn on the first crosswind leg.

C. Departure in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.

What minimum pilot certificate will permit a pilot to enter all Class B airspace?

A. Private Pilot Certificate.

B. Commercial Pilot Certificate.

C. Student Pilot Certificate with an appropriate endorsement.

While in Class E airspace in VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL?

A. 5 SM.

B. 3 SM.

C. 1 SM.

Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?

A. 2,500 feet.

B. 3,000 feet.

C. 4,000 feet.

When operating VFR in Class B airspace, what are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements?

A. 3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.

B. 3 SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal distance from clouds.

C. 1 SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal distance from clouds.

What are the requirements, if any, to overfly Class C airspace?

A. None, provided the flight remains above the airspace ceiling.

B. Transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability is required above the airspace ceiling and upward to 10,000 feet MSL.

C. Two-way radio communications must be established with ATC and transponder must be operating at all times.

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

A. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.

B. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.

C. Denotes intersecting runways.

What is the purpose of No Entry sign?

A. Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.

B. Identifies area that does not continue beyond intersection.

C. Identifies the exit boundary for the runway protected area.

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

A. Indicates direction to take-off runway.

B. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

C. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

What does a series of arrows painted on the approach end of a runway signify?

A. That area is restricted solely to taxi operations.

B. That portion of the runway is not suitable for landing.

C. That portion of the runway is the designated touchdown zone.

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

A. 008° and 026° true.

B. 080° and 260° true.

C. 080° and 260° magnetic.

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

A. Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway.

B. Identifies direction to take-off runways.

C. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.

What is the purpose of the yellow demarcation bar marking?

A. Delineates runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway.

B. Delineates entrance to runway from a taxiway.

C. Delineates beginning of runway available for landing when pavement is aligned with runway on approach side.

Within the contiguous United States, the floor of Class A airspace is

A. 14,500 feet MSL.

B. 18,000 feet MSL.

C. 18,000 feet AGL.

(Refer to figure 47 .) Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas?

A. 3,000 feet AGL.

B. 3,000 feet above airport.

C. 4,000 feet above airport.

(Refer to figure 47 .) What is the radius of the shelf area (circle A)?

A. 5 miles.

B. 10 miles.

C. 15 miles.

(Refer to figure 44 .) Where does the floor of controlled airspace begin over Saginaw Airport (area 1)?

A. Surface.

B. 700 feet AGL.

C. 4,000 feet MSL.

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

A. 10,000 feet MSL.

B. 14,500 feet MSL.

C. 18,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 46 .) What is the ceiling of the Class C airspace surrounding San Jose International Airport (area 2)?

A. 2,500 feet AGL.

B. 4,000 feet MSL.

C. 6,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 45 .) Assuming owner permission, what minimum avionics equipment is required for operation into Cuddihy Airport (area 8)?

A. Two-way radio communications equipment.

B. None, if altitude remains at or below 1,200 feet MSL.

C. Two-way radio communications equipment and transponder with encoding altimeter.

When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

A. The airspace designation normally will not change.

B. The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.

C. The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

A. filed an IFR flight plan.

B. received prior authorization from the controlling agency.

C. received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

When operating VFR in a military operations area (MOA), a pilot

A. must operate only when military activity is not being conducted.

B. should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

C. must obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.

(Refer to figure 45 .) What are the requirements for operating in the alert area (area 6) just west of Corpus Christi International Airport (area 3)?

A. Contact with approach control on frequency 120.9 is required.

B. Prior permission must be obtained from the controlling agency.

C. There are no requirements, but pilots should be extremely cautious due to extensive student training.

Local Airport Advisory service is usually available at all airports

A. with operating control towers.

B. where a Flight Service Station is located on the airport.

C. located in Class C airspace and within 10 NM of the primary airport.

(Refer to figure 44 .) What minimum avionics equipment is necessary to operate in the airspace up to 3,000 feet MSL over Northwest Airport (area 2)?

A. None required.

B. Transponder and encoding altimeter.

C. Two-way radio communications equipment, transponder, and encoding altimeter.

(Refer to figure 54 .) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic pattern is

A. left-hand for Rwy 17 and right-hand for Rwy 35.

B. right-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 9.

C. left-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 17.

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

A. 45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.

B. to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

C. to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.

Which technique should a student be taught to scan for traffic to the right and left during straightand- level flight?

A. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.

B. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.

C. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

A. NOTAM's.

B. Airport/Facility Directory.

C. Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.

Most midair collision accidents occur during

A. hazy days.

B. clear days.

C. cloudy nights.