Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
A. VA.
B. VLO.
C. VNE.
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A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
A. is cleared to land.
B. should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
C. should return for landing.
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If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
A. The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.
B. The elevation of the departure area.
C. Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
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(Refer to figure 11 .) Which yaw string and inclinometer illustrations indicate a slipping right turn?
A. 3 and 6.
B. 2 and 6.
C. 2 and 4.
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What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
A. Never-exceed speed.
B. Maximum structural cruising speed.
C. Maneuvering speed.
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(Refer to figure 4 .) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
A. 100 MPH.
B. 165 MPH.
C. 208 MPH.
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(Refer to figure 4 .) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?
A. The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of the green arc.
B. The green arc.
C. The white arc.
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(Refer to figure 4 .) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?
A. 65 MPH.
B. 100 MPH.
C. 165 MPH.
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(Refer to figure 4 .) Which color identifies the never-exceed speed?
A. Lower limit of the yellow arc.
B. Upper limit of the white arc.
C. The red radial line.
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The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
A. Altimeter.
B. Vertical-speed indicator.
C. Airspeed indicator.
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What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
A. Maneuvering speed.
B. Turbulent or rough-air speed.
C. Never-exceed speed.
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Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
A. calibrated altitude at field elevation.
B. absolute altitude at field elevation.
C. true altitude at field elevation.
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(Refer to figure 3 .) Altimeter 1 indicates
A. 500 feet.
B. 1,500 feet.
C. 10,500 feet.
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If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
A. 70-foot increase in indicated altitude.
B. 70-foot increase in density altitude.
C. 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.
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Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
A. If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
B. When at sea level under standard conditions.
C. When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.
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What is pressure altitude?
A. The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
B. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
C. The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
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What is true altitude?
A. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C. The height above the standard datum plane.
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What is absolute altitude?
A. The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C. The height above the standard datum plane.
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If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
A. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
B. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
C. The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
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(Refer to figure 7 .) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
A. horizon bar to the level-flight indication.
B. horizon bar to the miniature airplane.
C. miniature airplane to the horizon bar.
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(Refer to figure 7 .) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?
A. By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A).
B. By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B).
C. By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).
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(Refer to figure 6 .) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
A. set prior to flight on a known heading.
B. calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
C. periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.
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(Refer to figure 5 .) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
A. movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axis.
B. angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°.
C. attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis.
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In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
A. a turn momentarily.
B. correctly when on a north or south heading.
C. a turn toward the south.
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Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
A. presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.
B. difference in the location between true north and magnetic north.
C. magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.
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During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
A. Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
B. As long as the airspeed is constant.
C. During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°.
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In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when
A. a left turn is entered from an east heading.
B. a right turn is entered from a west heading.
C. the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.
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How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
A. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
B. Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.
C. Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
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If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
A. Altimeter will indicate .15 inches Hg higher.
B. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
C. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
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In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
A. a left turn is entered from a north heading.
B. a right turn is entered from a north heading.
C. an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
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(Refer to figure 24 .) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 320° radial of Savannah VORTAC (area 3) and the 184° radial of Allendale VOR (area 1)?
A. Town of Guyton.
B. Town of Springfield.
C. 3 miles east of Marlow.
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(Refer to figure 31 , illustration 8.) If the magnetic bearing TO the station is 135°, the magnetic heading is
A. 135°.
B. 270°.
C. 360°.
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(Refer to figure 30 , illustration 1.) What outbound bearing is the aircraft crossing?
A. 030°.
B. 150°.
C. 180°.
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(Refer to figure 30 , illustration 3.) What is the magnetic bearing FROM the station?
A. 025°.
B. 115°.
C. 295°.
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(Refer to figure 30 , illustration 2.) What magnetic bearing should the pilot use to fly TO the station?
A. 010°.
B. 145°.
C. 190°.
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(Refer to figure 30 , illustration 1.) Determine the magnetic bearing TO the station.
A. 030°.
B. 180°.
C. 210°.
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(Refer to figure 31 , illustration 1.) The relative bearing TO the station is
A. 045°.
B. 180°.
C. 315°.
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(Refer to figure 29 , illustration 8.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?
A. 030°.
B. 210°.
C. 300°.
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(Refer to figure 29 , illustration 3.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?
A. East.
B. Southeast.
C. West.
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(Refer to figure 26 , area 5.) The VOR is tuned to the Dallas/Fort Worth VORTAC. The omnibearing selector (OBS) is set on 253°, with a TO indication, and a right course deviation indicator (CDI) deflection. What is the aircraft's position from the VORTAC?
A. East-northeast.
B. North-northeast.
C. West-southwest.
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(Refer to figure 25 , and figure 29 .) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct?
A. 1.
B. 7.
C. 8.
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(Refer to figure 25 .) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)?
A. 101°.
B. 108°.
C. 281°.
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(Refer to figure 22 .) What course should be selected on the omnibearing selector (OBS) to make a direct flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to the Minot VORTAC (area 1) with a TO indication?
A. 359°.
B. 179°.
C. 001°.
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(Refer to figure 21 , area 3; and figure 29 .) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro. Which VOR indication is correct?
A. 2.
B. 5.
C. 9.
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(Refer to figure 21 .) What is your approximate position on low altitude airway Victor 1, southwest of Norfolk (area 1), if the VOR receiver indicates you are on the 340° radial of Elizabeth City VOR (area 3)?
A. 15 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC.
B. 18 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC.
C. 23 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC.
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(Refer to figure 25 .) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 245° radial of Sulphur Springs VOR-DME (area 5) and the 140° radial of Bonham VORTAC (area 3)?
A. Majors Airport.
B. Meadowview Airport.
C. Glenmar Airport.
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Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
A. When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92 inches Hg.
B. When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
C. When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
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If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A. the actual altitude above sea level.
B. higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C. lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
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Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
A. In colder than standard air temperature.
B. In warmer than standard air temperature.
C. When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.
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(Refer to figure 21 , area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?
A. Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.
B. Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service.
C. Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.
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(Refer to figure 27 , area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?
A. Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.
B. Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz.
C. Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic.
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If the aircraft`s radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
A. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.
B. Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings.
C. Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport.
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The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is
A. 'FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.'
B. 'FOUR POINT FIVE.'
C. 'FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL.'
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The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is
A. 'TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET.'
B. 'TEN POINT FIVE.'
C. 'ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.'
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When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is
A. 'MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.'
B. 'MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.'
C. 'MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.'
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After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
A. When advised by the tower to do so.
B. Prior to turning off the runway.
C. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area.
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Which statement best defines hypoxia?
A. A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.
B. An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed.
C. A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles.
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14 CFR part 1 defines VNE as
A. maximum landing gear extended speed.
B. never-exceed speed.
C. maximum nose wheel extend speed.
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14 CFR part 1 defines VNO as
A. normal operating speed.
B. maximum structural cruising speed.
C. maximum operating speed.
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14 CFR part 1 defines VF as
A. design flap speed.
B. flap operating speed.
C. maximum flap extended speed.
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Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration?
A. VS.
B. VS1.
C. VSO.
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What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
A. Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route.
B. Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.
C. 29.92 Inches Hg.
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In accordance with14 CFR part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of
A. 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL.
B. 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
C. 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.
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What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL?
A. Oxygen must be available for the flightcrew.
B. Oxygen is not required at any altitude in a balloon.
C. The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.
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Which is true regarding electric variometers?
A. They do not utilize outside air static pressure lines.
B. Are generally considered to be less sensitive and has a slower response time than a verticalspeed indicator.
C. The sensitivity can be adjusted in flight to suit existing air conditions.
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Which is true concerning total energy compensators? The instrument
A. responds to up and down air currents only.
B. will register climbs that result from stick thermals.
C. reacts to climbs and descents like a conventional rate-of-climb indicator.
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The advantage of a total energy compensator is that this system
A. includes a speed ring around the rim of the variometer.
B. adds the effect of stick thermals to the total energy produced by thermals.
C. reduces climb and dive errors on variometer indications caused by airspeed changes.
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When flying on a heading of east from one thermal to the next, the airspeed is increased to the speed-to-fly with wings level. What will the conventional magnetic compass indicate while the airspeed is increasing?
A. A turn toward the south.
B. A turn toward the north.
C. Straight flight on a heading of 090°.
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Select the true statement concerning oxygen systems that are often installed in sailplanes.
A. Most civilian aircraft oxygen systems use low-pressure cylinders for oxygen storage.
B. When aviation breathing oxygen is not available, hospital or welder's oxygen serves as a good substitute.
C. In case of a malfunction of the main oxygen system, a bailout bottle may serve as an emergency oxygen supply.
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The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon:
A. High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed.
B. Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed.
C. Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed.
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(Refer to figure 5 .) The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the
A. green arc.
B. yellow arc.
C. white arc.
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Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?
A. The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed.
B. The raising of flaps increases the stall speed.
C. Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.
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Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator?
A. The never-exceed speed.
B. The power-off stall speed.
C. The maneuvering speed.
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To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to
A. the current altimeter setting.
B. 29.92 inches Hg and the altimeter indication noted.
C. the field elevation and the pressure reading in the altimeter setting window noted.
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When flying on a heading of west from one thermal to the next, the airspeed is increased to the 'speed-to-fly' with the wings level. What will the conventional magnetic compass indicate while the airspeed is increasing?
A. A turn toward the south.
B. A turn toward the north.
C. Straight flight on a heading of 270°.
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The ADF is tuned to a radiobeacon. If the magnetic heading is 040° and the relative bearing is 290°, the magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon would be
A. 150°.
B. 285°.
C. 330°.
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To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to
A. 215° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
B. 215° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.
C. 035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
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Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver?
A. Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS.
B. Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from the bearing on which the aircraft is located.
C. Failing to change the OBS from the selected inbound course to the outbound course after passing the station.
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When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the
A. 090 radial.
B. 180 radial.
C. 360 radial.
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Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
A. Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream.
B. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
C. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
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While in flight, a steady red light directed at you from the control tower means
A. continue flight; airport unsafe, do not land.
B. give way to other aircraft; continue circling.
C. return for landing; expect steady green light at the appropriate time.
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Which cabin pressure altitude allows a pilot to operate an aircraft up to 30 minutes without supplemental oxygen?
A. 12,500 feet MSL.
B. 12,600 feet MSL.
C. 14,100 feet MSL.
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The advantage of total energy compensators is that this system
A. adds the effect of stick thermals to the total energy produced by thermals.
B. reduces climb and dive errors on variometer indications caused by airspeed changes.
C. compensates for air pressure changes while climbing or descending.
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What airspeed indicator marking identifies the maximum structural cruising speed of an aircraft?
A. Red radial line.
B. Upper limit of the green arc.
C. Upper limit of the yellow arc.
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In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
A. a left turn is entered from a west heading.
B. an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.
C. an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
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(Refer to figure 25 .) What would be the indicated stall speed in a 60° banked turn with the gear and flaps up?
A. 110 KIAS.
B. 117 KIAS.
C. 121 KIAS.
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The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is
A. magnetic deviation.
B. magnetic variation.
C. compass acceleration error.
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(Refer to figure 42 .) At which aircraft position(s) would you receive OMNI indication V?
A. 2 only.
B. 6 only.
C. 5 and 8.
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(Refer to figure 42 .) Which OMNI indications would you receive for aircraft 5 and 7?
A. T and X.
B. V and X.
C. W and Z.
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When using a VOT to check the accuracy of a VOR receiver with an RMI, what should the RMI indicate if no error exists?
A. 180° FROM.
B. 180° TO.
C. 360° TO.
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A particular VORTAC station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by
A. removal of the identification feature.
B. removal of the voice feature of the TACAN.
C. transmitting a series of dashes after each identification signal.
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As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
A. 25 miles.
B. 20 miles.
C. 10 miles.
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During a climb to 18,000 feet, the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere
A. increases.
B. decreases.
C. remains the same.
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Hypoxia is the result of
A. excessive nitrogen in the bloodstream.
B. reduced barometric pressures at altitude.
C. decreasing amount of oxygen as your altitude increases.
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What precautions should be taken with respect to aircraft oxygen systems?
A. Ensure that only medical oxygen has been used to replenish oxygen containers.
B. Prohibit smoking while in an aircraft equipped with a portable oxygen system.
C. Ensure that industrial oxygen has not been used to replenish the system.
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