(Refer to figure 21 .) Over which area should a glider pilot expect to find the best lift under normal conditions?

A. 5.

B. 6.

C. 7.

(Refer to figure 27 .) If a glider is launched over Barnes County Airport (area 6) with sufficient altitude to glide to Jamestown Airport (area 4), how long will it take for the flight at an average of 40 MPH groundspeed?

A. 20 minutes.

B. 27 minutes.

C. 48 minutes.

(Refer to figure 25 , area 1.) A glider is launched over Caddo Mills Airport with sufficient altitude to glide to Airpark East Airport, south of Caddo Mills. How long will it take for the flight at an average of 35 MPH groundspeed?

A. 31 minutes.

B. 27 minutes.

C. 25 minutes.

(Refer to figure 28 .) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?

A. 0930 MST.

B. 1030 MST.

C. 1130 MST.

(Refer to figure 28 .) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

A. 1345Z.

B. 1445Z.

C. 1645Z.

(Refer to figure 28 .) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1615 MST for a 2-hour 15-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. The estimated time of arrival at the destination airport should be

A. 1630 PST.

B. 1730 PST.

C. 1830 PST.

(Refer to figure 28 .) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?

A. 1645 PST.

B. 1745 PST.

C. 1845 PST.

(Refer to figure 22 , area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47° 39 minutes 30 seconds N latitude and 100° 53 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?

A. Linrud.

B. Crooked Lake.

C. Johnson.

(Refer to figure 28 .) An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

A. 1345Z.

B. 1445Z.

C. 1545Z.

(Refer to figure 21 , area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.

A. 36°24'N - 76°01'W.

B. 36°48'N - 76°01'W.

C. 47°24'N - 75°58'W.

(Refer to figure 28 .) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

A. 2030Z.

B. 2130Z.

C. 2230Z.

(Refer to figure 24 .) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind is from 090° at 16 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.

A. 208°.

B. 212°.

C. 230°.

(Refer to figure 25 .) Estimate the time en route from Majors Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340° at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 36 knots.

A. 55 minutes.

B. 59 minutes.

C. 63 minutes.

(Refer to figure 21 .) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).

A. 141°.

B. 321°.

C. 331°.

(Refer to figure 27 .) Determine the magnetic course from Breckheimer (Pvt) Airport (area 1) to Jamestown Airport (area 4).

A. 180°.

B. 188°.

C. 360°.

An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as

A. an inactive frontal cloud.

B. a funnel cloud.

C. a lenticular cloud.

Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as

A. mammatocumulus clouds.

B. standing lenticular clouds.

C. roll clouds.

Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow

A. across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.

B. down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable.

C. parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable.

Where and under what condition can enough lift be found for soaring when the weather is generally stable?

A. On the upwind side of hills or ridges with moderate winds present.

B. In mountain waves that form on the upwind side of the mountains.

C. Over isolated peaks when strong winds are present.

The development of thermals depends upon

A. a counterclockwise circulation of air.

B. temperature inversions.

C. solar heating.

What is an important precaution when soaring in a dust devil?

A. Avoid the eye of the vortex.

B. Avoid the clear area at the outside edge of the dust.

C. Maintain the same direction as the rotation of the vortex.

Where may the most favorable type thermals for cross-country soaring be found?

A. Just ahead of a warm front.

B. Along thermal streets.

C. Under mountain waves.

How can a pilot locate bubble thermals?

A. Look for wet areas where recent showers have occurred.

B. Look for birds that are soaring in areas of intermittent heating.

C. Fly the area just above the boundary of a temperature inversion.

What is the best visual indication of a thermal?

A. Fragmented cumulus clouds with concave bases.

B. Smooth cumulus clouds with concave bases.

C. Scattered to broken sky with cumulus clouds.

What is a recommended procedure for entering a dust devil for soaring?

A. Enter above 500 feet and circle the edge in the same direction as the rotation.

B. Enter below 500 feet and circle the edge opposite the direction of rotation.

C. Enter at or above 500 feet and circle the edge opposite the direction of rotation.

What is one recommended method for locating thermals?

A. Fly an ever increasing circular path.

B. Maintain a straight track downwind.

C. Look for converging streamers of dust or smoke.

On which side of a rocky knoll, that is surrounded by vegetation, should a pilot find the best thermals?

A. On the side facing the Sun.

B. On the downwind side.

C. Exactly over the center.

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by

A. warm, dense air moving inland from over the water.

B. water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land.

C. cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.

During which period is a sea breeze front most suitable for soaring flight?

A. Shortly after sunrise.

B. During the early forenoon.

C. During the afternoon.

(Refer to figure 13 .) What effect do the clouds mentioned in the weather briefing have on soaring conditions?

A. All thermals stop at the base of the clouds.

B. Thermals persist to the tops of the clouds at 25,000 feet.

C. The scattered clouds indicate thermals at least to the tops of the lower clouds.

(Refer to figure 13 .) At what time will thermals begin to form?

A. Between 1300Z and 1500Z while the sky is clear.

B. By 1500Z (midmorning) when scattered clouds begin to form.

C. About 2000Z (early afternoon) when the wind begins to increase.

(Refer to figure 24 , area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

A. 1,500 feet MSL.

B. 1,531 feet AGL.

C. 1,549 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 22 .) The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from

A. sea level to 2,000 feet MSL.

B. 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL.

C. 2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 26 , area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of NAS Dallas?

A. 2,555 feet MSL.

B. 3,449 feet MSL.

C. 3,349 feet MSL.

To obtain maximum distance over the ground, the airspeed to use is the

A. minimum control speed.

B. best lift/drag speed.

C. minimum sink speed.

A sailplane has a best glide ratio of 30:1. How many nautical miles will the glider travel while losing 2,000 feet?

A. 10 nautical miles.

B. 15 nautical miles.

C. 21 nautical miles.

A sailplane has lost 2,000 feet in 9 nautical miles. The best glide ratio for this sailplane is approximately

A. 24:1.

B. 27:1.

C. 30:1.

How many feet will a glider sink in 10 nautical miles if its lift/drag ratio is 23:1?

A. 2,400 feet.

B. 2,600 feet.

C. 4,300 feet.

A sailplane has a best glide ratio of 23:1. How many feet will the glider lose in 8 nautical miles?

A. 1,840 feet.

B. 2,100 feet.

C. 2,750 feet.

How many feet will a sailplane sink in 15 nautical miles if its lift/drag ratio is 22:1?

A. 2,700 feet.

B. 3,600 feet.

C. 4,100 feet.

What is the proper airspeed to use when flying between thermals on a cross-country flight against a headwind?

A. The best lift/drag speed increased by one-half the estimated wind velocity.

B. The minimum sink speed increased by one-half the estimated wind velocity.

C. The best lift/drag speed decreased by one-half the estimated wind velocity.

(Refer to figure 27 , areas 5 and 6.) What minimum altitude should be used for a go-ahead point at Eckelson in order to arrive at Barnes County Airport at 1,000 feet AGL if the glide ratio is 22:1 in no wind conditions? Use the recommended safety factor.

A. 5,959 feet MSL.

B. 7,960 feet MSL.

C. 9,359 feet MSL.

Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water,

A. in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore.

B. beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.

C. more than 50 statute miles from shore.

A glide ratio of 22:1 with respect to the air mass will be

A. 11:1 in a tailwind and 44:1 in a headwind.

B. 22:1 regardless of wind direction and speed.

C. 11:1 in a headwind and 44:1 in a tailwind.

When flying into a headwind, penetrating speed is the glider's

A. speed-to-fly.

B. minimum sink speed.

C. speed-to-fly plus half the estimated wind velocity.

When flying into a strong headwind on a long final glide or a long glide back to the airport, the recommended speed to use is the

A. best glide speed.

B. minimum sink speed.

C. speed-to-fly plus half the estimated windspeed at the glider's flight altitude.

What is the proper airspeed to use when flying between thermals on a cross-country flight against a headwind?

A. The best L/D speed increased by one-half the estimated wind velocity.

B. The best L/D speed decreased by one-half the estimated wind velocity.

C. The minimum sink speed increased by one-half the estimated wind velocity.

If the glider has drifted a considerable distance from the airport while soaring, the best speed to use to reach the airport when flying into a headwind is the

A. best glide speed.

B. minimum sink speed.

C. speed-to-fly plus half the estimated windspeed at the glider's altitude.

Which is true regarding the effect of fronts on soaring conditions?

A. Good soaring conditions usually exist after passage of a warm front.

B. Excellent soaring conditions usually exist in the cold air ahead of a warm front.

C. Frequently the air behind a cold front provides excellent soaring for several days.

The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of

A. stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.

B. unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.

C. moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge.

With regard to two or more gliders flying in the same thermal, which is true?

A. All turns should be to the right.

B. Turns should be in the same direction as the highest glider.

C. Turns should be made in the same direction as the first glider to enter the thermal.

Which is true regarding ridge soaring with the wind direction perpendicular to the ridge?

A. When very close to the surface of the ridge, the glider's speed should be reduced to the minimum sink speed.

B. When the wind and lift are very strong on the windward side of the ridge, a weak sink condition will exist on the leeward side.

C. If the glider drifts downwind from the ridge and sinks slightly lower than the crest of the ridge, the glider should be turned away from the ridge and a high speed attained.

True course measurements on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart should be made at a meridian near the midpoint of the course because the

A. values of isogonic lines change from point to point.

B. angles formed by isogonic lines and lines of latitude vary from point to point.

C. angles formed by lines of longitude and the course line vary from point to point.

GIVEN: True course 105° True heading 085° True airspeed 95 kts Groundspeed 87 kts Determine the wind direction and speed.

A. 020° and 32 knots.

B. 030° and 38 knots.

C. 200° and 32 knots.

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of

A. lenticular ice formation in calm air.

B. very strong turbulence.

C. heavy icing conditions.

When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from turbulent air currents will usually be encountered on the

A. leeward side when flying with a tailwind.

B. leeward side when flying into the wind.

C. windward side when flying into the wind.

One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and

A. below rotor clouds.

B. above rotor clouds.

C. below lenticular clouds.

Convective currents are most active on warm summer afternoons when winds are

A. light.

B. moderate.

C. strong.

When soaring in the vicinity of mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from vertical and rotor-type currents will usually be encountered on the

A. leeward side when flying with a tailwind.

B. leeward side when flying into the wind.

C. windward side when flying into the wind.

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by

A. water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land.

B. land absorbing and radiating heat faster than the water.

C. cool and less dense air moving inland from over the water, causing it to rise.

A thermal column is rising from an asphalt parking lot and the wind is from the south at 12 knots. Which statement would be true?

A. As altitude is gained, the best lift will be found directly above the parking lot.

B. As altitude is gained, the center of the thermal will be found farther north of the parking lot.

C. The slowest rate of sink would be close to the thermal and the fastest rate of sink farther from it.

To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, you must have an operative VHF

A. transmitter and receiver.

B. transmitter and receiver, and an operative ADF receiver.

C. transmitter and receiver, and an operative VOR receiver.

(Refer to figure 53 , point 2) The 16 indicates

A. an antenna top at 1,600 feet AGL.

B. the maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle.

C. the minimum safe sector altitude for that quadrangle.

(Refer to figure 52 , point 4) The terrain at the obstruction approximately 8 NM east southeast of the Lincoln Airport is approximately how much higher than the airport elevation?

A. 376 feet.

B. 835 feet.

C. 1,135 feet.

(Refer to figure 52 , point 4) The highest obstruction with high intensity lighting within 10 NM of Lincoln Regional Airport (LHM) is how high above the ground?

A. 1,254 feet.

B. 662 feet.

C. 299 feet.

When flying into a strong headwind on a long glide back to the airport, the recommended speed to use is the

A. best glide speed.

B. minimum sink speed.

C. best lift/drag speed plus half the estimated windspeed at the glider's flight altitude.

With regard to two or more gliders flying in the same thermal, which statement is true?

A. All turns should be to the right.

B. Turns should be in the same direction as the highest glider.

C. Turns should be made in the same direction as the first glider to enter the thermal.

(Refer to figure 38 .) A glider is flying from A to C. With a normal L/D ratio of 20:1 and a constant airspeed of 40 MPH, what minimum altitude AGL is needed at B to arrive over C at 800 feet AGL with no sinking air?

A. 3,520 feet.

B. 4,320 feet.

C. 6,080 feet.

What is the suggested speed to fly when passing through lift with no intention to work the lift?

A. Best glide speed.

B. Minimum sink speed.

C. Best lift/drag speed.

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

A. Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator.

B. Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.

C. The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.

(Refer to figure 40 .) The line from point A to point B of the wind triangle represents

A. true heading and airspeed.

B. true course and groundspeed.

C. groundspeed and true heading.

How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots?

A. 2.45 NM.

B. 3.35 NM.

C. 4.08 NM.

When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from turbulent air currents will usually be encountered on the

A. leeward side when flying with the wind.

B. leeward side when flying into the wind.

C. windward side when flying into the wind.

Consider the following statements about mountain waves: 1. Mountain waves always develop in a series on the upwind (windward) side of mountain ridges. 2. In a mountain wave, the air dips sharply downward immediately to the lee side of a ridge, before rising and falling in a wave motion for a considerable distance downstream. 3. If the air is humid and the wave is of large amplitude, lenticular (lens-shaped) clouds mark the wave's crest. 4. In a typical wave, the greatest amplitude is seldom more than 1,000 feet above the ridge crest elevation. From the statements above, select those which are true.

A. 2 and 3.

B. 1, 2, and 3.

C. 1, 3, and 4.

Which statement is true regarding the effect of fronts on soaring conditions?

A. A slow-moving front provides the strongest lift.

B. Excellent soaring conditions usually exist in the cold air ahead of a warm front.

C. Frequently the air behind a cold front provides excellent soaring for several days.

The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of

A. unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 15 to 25 knots blowing across the ridge.

B. stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 15 to 25 knots blowing across the ridge.

C. moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge.

When soaring in the vicinity of mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from vertical and rotor-type currents will usually be encountered on the

A. leeward side when flying with the wind.

B. leeward side when flying into the wind.

C. windward side when flying into the wind.

One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and

A. below rotor clouds.

B. above rotor clouds.

C. below lenticular clouds.

An important precaution when soaring in a dust devil is to

A. avoid the eye of the vortex because of extreme turbulence.

B. avoid steep turns on the upwind side to prevent being blown into the vortex.

C. avoid the clear area at the outside edge of the dust because of severe downdrafts.

(Refer to figure 46 .) What does the figure 24 (area 6) indicate?

A. Maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle.

B. Minimum safe altitude when approaching San Francisco.

C. Height above ground of the tallest obstruction for that quadrangle.