Subject General-Class A Airspace, Private Question No 258.

Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

A. 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

B. 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

C. the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.


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Subject General-Class A Airspace, Private Question No 259.

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least

A. 1,000 feet and 1 mile.

B. 1,000 feet and 3 miles.

C. 2,500 feet and 3 miles.


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Subject General-Class A Airspace, Private Question No 424.

The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is

A. 4 nautical miles.

B. 6 nautical miles.

C. 8 nautical miles.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Private Question No 269.

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

A. Class C.

B. Class E.

C. Class G.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Private Question No 270.

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

A. Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.

B. Make all turns to the left.

C. Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Private Question No 273.

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

A. when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.

B. when the associated control tower is in operation.

C. when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Private Question No 274.

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

A. Class B.

B. Class C.

C. Class D.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Private Question No 278.

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

A. Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.

B. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME.

C. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Private Question No 288.

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

A. over a densely populated area.

B. in Class D airspace under special VFR.

C. except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Private Question No 302.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

A. Glider.

B. Airship.

C. Aircraft refueling other aircraft.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Private Question No 303.

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

A. The faster aircraft shall give way.

B. The aircraft on the left shall give way.

C. Each aircraft shall give way to the right.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Private Question No 308.

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs

A. at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.

B. at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

C. at all tower controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Private Question No 483.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

A. A balloon.

B. An aircraft in distress.

C. An aircraft on final approach to land.


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Subject Visual Flight Rules, Private Question No 272.

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

A. 1 mile.

B. 3 miles.

C. 4 miles.


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Subject Visual Flight Rules, Private Question No 275.

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

A. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

B. 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.

C. 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.


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Subject Visual Flight Rules, Private Question No 276.

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is

A. remain clear of clouds.

B. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

C. 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.


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Subject Visual Flight Rules, Private Question No 277.

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

A. 1,000 feet.

B. 1,500 feet.

C. 2,000 feet.


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Subject Visual Flight Rules, Private Question No 280.

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

A. 1 mile.

B. 3 miles.

C. 5 miles.


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Subject Visual Flight Rules, Private Question No 293.

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

A. flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.

B. ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.

C. ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.


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Subject Collision Avoidance, Private Question No 159.

Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

A. check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.

B. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.

C. announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.


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Subject Airport Lighting Aids, Private Question No 99.

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

A. four white lights.

B. three white lights and one red light.

C. two white lights and two red lights.


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Subject Airport Lighting Aids, Private Question No 103.

(Refer to figure 48 .) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is

A. below the glide slope.

B. on the glide slope.

C. above the glide slope.


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Subject Airport Lighting Aids, Private Question No 104.

An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

A. a white light signal.

B. a green light signal.

C. an amber light signal.


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Subject Airport Lighting Aids, Private Question No 105.

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

A. pulsating white light.

B. steady white light.

C. pulsating red light.


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Subject Airport Lighting Aids, Private Question No 106.

(Refer to figure 48 .) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is

A. above the glide slope.

B. below the glide slope.

C. on the glide slope.


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Subject Airport Lighting Aids, Private Question No 108.

A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a

A. red light signal.

B. pink light signal.

C. green light signal.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Private Question No 109.

(Refer to figure 49 .) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a

A. stabilized area.

B. multiple heliport.

C. closed runway.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Private Question No 110.

(Refer to figure 49 .) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?

A. 'A' may be used for taxi and takeoff; 'E' may be used only as an overrun.

B. 'A' may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; 'E' may be used only as an overrun.

C. 'A' may be used only for taxiing; 'E' may be used for all operations except landings.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Private Question No 111.

(Refer to figure 49 .) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?

A. Runway 30 is equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft.

B. Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.

C. The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Private Question No 112.

(Refer to figure 49 .) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for

A. landing.

B. taxiing and takeoff.

C. taxiing and landing.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Private Question No 113.

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

A. 009 and 027 true.

B. 090 and 270 true.

C. 090 and 270 magnetic.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Private Question No 138.

(Refer to figure 26 , area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) northnorthwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is

A. at the surface.

B. 3,200 feet MSL.

C. 4,000 feet MSL.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Private Question No 139.

(Refer to figure 26 , area 2.) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is

A. at the surface.

B. 3,000 feet MSL.

C. 3,100 feet MSL.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Private Question No 142.

All operations within Class C airspace must be in

A. accordance with instrument flight rules.

B. compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.

C. an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Private Question No 143.

The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is

A. 5 nautical miles.

B. 15 nautical miles.

C. 20 nautical miles.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Private Question No 144.

The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

A. 1,200 feet AGL.

B. 3,000 feet AGL.

C. 4,000 feet AGL.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Private Question No 147.

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

A. the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace.

B. 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.

C. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.


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Subject Special Use Airspace, Private Question No 151.

Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

A. the controlling agency.

B. all pilots.

C. Air Traffic Control.


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Subject Special Use Airspace, Private Question No 152.

(Refer to figure 27 , area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas, such as Devils Lake East MOA?

A. Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft, such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.

B. Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

C. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.


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Subject Special Use Airspace, Private Question No 153.

(Refer to figure 21 area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?

A. Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

B. Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

C. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.


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Subject Special Use Airspace, Private Question No 431.

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

A. Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.

B. Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.

C. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.


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Subject Special Use Airspace, Private Question No 433.

Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?

A. When flying on airways with an ATC clearance.

B. With the controlling agency's authorization.

C. Regulations do not allow this.


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Subject Other Airspace Areas, Private Question No 149.

(Refer to figure 22 , area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?

A. IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.

B. VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots.

C. Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots.


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Subject Service Available to Pilots, Private Question No 126.

(Refer to figure 26 , area 3.) If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

A. 120.3 MHz.

B. 122.95 MHz.

C. 126.35 MHz.


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Subject Service Available to Pilots, Private Question No 128.

(Refer to figure 22 , area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is

A. 122.8 MHz.

B. 122.9 MHz.

C. 123.0 MHz.


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Subject Service Available to Pilots, Private Question No 129.

(Refer to figure 23 , area 2; and figure 32 .) At Coeur D'Alene , which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?

A. 122.05 MHz.

B. 122.1/108.8 MHz.

C. 122.8 MHz.


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Subject Service Available to Pilots, Private Question No 130.

(Refer to figure 23 , area 2; and figure 32 .) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

A. 122.05 MHz.

B. 135.075 MHz.

C. 122.8 MHz.


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Subject Service Available to Pilots, Private Question No 133.

(Refer to figure 27 , area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is

A. 122.0 MHz.

B. 123.0 MHz.

C. 123.6 MHz.


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Subject Service Available to Pilots, Private Question No 140.

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

A. Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.

B. Contact the tower and request permission to enter.

C. Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.


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Subject Airport Operations, Private Question No 114.

(Refer to figure 51 .) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a

A. right-quartering headwind.

B. left-quartering headwind.

C. right-quartering tailwind.


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Subject Airport Operations, Private Question No 115.

(Refer to figure 51 .) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the

A. south of the airport.

B. north of the airport.

C. southeast of the airport.


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Subject Airport Operations, Private Question No 116.

(Refer to figure 51 .) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is

A. left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18.

B. left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36.

C. right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27.


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Subject Airport Operations, Private Question No 117.

(Refer to figure 50 .) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on

A. Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.

B. Runway 22 directly into the wind.

C. Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.


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Subject Airport Operations, Private Question No 118.

(Refer to figure 50 .) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.

A. Left-hand traffic and Runway 18.

B. Right-hand traffic and Runway 18.

C. Left-hand traffic and Runway 22.


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Subject ATC Clearances/Separations, Private Question No 164.

What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

A. Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.

B. Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes.

C. Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.


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Subject Fitness for Flight, Private Question No 171.

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use

A. regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions.

B. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.

C. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.


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Subject Fitness for Flight, Private Question No 173.

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?

A. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

B. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.

C. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.


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Subject Fitness for Flight, Private Question No 174.

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

A. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.

B. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.

C. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.


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Subject Airport/Facility Directory, Private Question No 244.

(Refer to figure 23 , area 2 and legend 1.) For information about the parachute jumping and glider operations at Silverwood Airport, refer to

A. notes on the border of the chart.

B. the Airport/Facility Directory.

C. the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Private Question No 145.

(Refer to figure 24 , area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

A. 1,300 feet AGL.

B. 1,300 feet MSL.

C. 1,700 feet MSL.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Private Question No 148.

(Refer to figure 23 , area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

A. 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.

B. 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL.

C. 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Private Question No 155.

(Refer to figure 27 , area 1.) Identify the airspace over Lowe Airport.

A. Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

B. Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL, Class E airspace - 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.

C. Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Private Question No 181.

(Refer to figure 21 , area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is

A. 20 feet.

B. 36 feet.

C. 360 feet.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Private Question No 185.

(Refer to figure 21 , area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a

A. compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace.

B. compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport.

C. visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Private Question No 187.

(Refer to figure 26 , area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

A. 122.95 MHz.

B. 126.0 MHz.

C. 133.4 MHz.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Private Question No 188.

(Refer to figure 26 , area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is

A. Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL.

B. Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL.

C. Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Private Question No 191.

(Refer to figure 24 .) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are

A. outer boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace.

B. airports with special traffic patterns.

C. visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Private Question No 192.

(Refer to figure 21 , area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

A. Mode C transponder and omnireceiver.

B. Mode C transponder and two-way radio.

C. Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Private Question No 193.

(Refer to figure 26 , area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to

A. 700 feet AGL.

B. 2,900 feet MSL.

C. 2,500 feet MSL.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Private Question No 194.

(Refer to figure 27 , area 6.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is

A. Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace.

B. Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL.

C. Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Private Question No 479.

(Refer to figure 27 , area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are

A. 1 mile and clear of clouds.

B. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

C. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Private Question No 624.

(Refer to figure 27 , area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown below 700 feet AGL are

A. 1 mile and clear of clouds.

B. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

C. 3 miles and clear of clouds.


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Subject Class F Airspace, Commercial Question No 356.

Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from

A. 700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.

B. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.

C. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 40.

When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should

A. enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.

B. make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.

C. fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 42.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?

A. The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.

B. Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated.

C. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 43.

Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?

A. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.

B. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.

C. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 45.

When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to

A. 5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.

B. 8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.

C. 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 136.

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are

A. authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

B. not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

C. not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 137.

Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The rightof- way belongs to the aircraft

A. at the higher altitude.

B. at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft.

C. that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake the other aircraft.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 149.

Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? They are

A. authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

B. not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.

C. not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 152.

The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of

A. 14,500 feet MSL.

B. 10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.

C. 10,000 feet MSL regardless of height above ground.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 160.

What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?

A. 1 mile visibility; clear of clouds.

B. 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.

C. 5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet below.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 459.

When flying a glider above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, what minimum flight visibility is required?

A. 3 NM.

B. 5 SM.

C. 5 NM.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 540.

When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to

A. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

B. 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.

C. 30 SM, and be transponder equipped.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 582.

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are

A. authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

B. not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM.

C. not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 592.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?

A. May conduct operations under visual flight rules.

B. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).

C. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Commercial Question No 593.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?

A. Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.

B. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).

C. Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Commercial Question No 38.

(Refer to figure 51 .) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found

A. upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.

B. at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.

C. near the approach end of ILS runways.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Commercial Question No 39.

(Refer to figure 51 .) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft

A. passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure.

B. is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol.

C. is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Commercial Question No 41.

(Refer to figure 53 ) GIVEN: Location -Madera Airport (MAE) Altitude 1,000 ft AGL Position 7 NM north of Madera (MAE) Time 3 p.m. local Flight visibility 1 SM You are VFR approaching Madera Airport for a landing from the north. You

A. are in violation of the CFR's; you need 3 miles of visibility under VFR.

B. are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to remain clear of Class E airspace and may continue for landing.

C. may descend to 800 feet AGL (Pattern Altitude) after entering Class E airspace and continue to the airport.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Commercial Question No 44.

When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of

A. Special VFR airspace.

B. Class D airspace.

C. Class B airspace


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Subject Sectional Chart, Commercial Question No 46.

(Refer to figure 52 , point 9) The alert area depicted within the blue lines is an area in which

A. there is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.

B. the flight of aircraft is prohibited.

C. the flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Commercial Question No 86.

(Refer to figure 52 , point 6) Mosier Airport is

A. an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots.

B. a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace.

C. a nonpublic use airport.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Commercial Question No 87.

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

A. Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta.

B. Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta.

C. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Commercial Question No 88.

(Refer to figure 53 , point 1) This thin black shaded line is most likely

A. an arrival route.

B. a military training route.

C. a state boundary line.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Commercial Question No 90.

(Refer to figure 54 , point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of

A. both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.

B. 8,000 feet MSL.

C. 2,100 feet AGL.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Commercial Question No 337.

(Refer to figure 54 , point 1) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?

A. 2,503 feet MSL.

B. 2,901 feet MSL.

C. 3,297 feet MSL.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Commercial Question No 357.

(Refer to figure 54 , point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco International Airport is

A. the outer segment of Class B airspace.

B. an area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.

C. a Mode C veil boundary where a balloon may penetrate without a transponder provided it remains below 8,000 feet MSL.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Commercial Question No 435.

(Refer to figure 52 , point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is

A. 700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.

B. 1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.

C. both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Commercial Question No 436.

(Refer to figure 52 , point 8) The floor of the Class E airspace over the town of Auburn is

A. 1,200 feet MSL.

B. 700 feet AGL.

C. 1,200 feet AGL.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Commercial Question No 508.

(Refer to figure 52 , point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is

A. the surface.

B. 700 feet AGL.

C. 1,200 feet AGL.


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Subject Sectional Chart, Commercial Question No 541.

(Refer to figure 52 , point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at

A. the surface.

B. 3,823 feet MSL.

C. 700 feet AGL.


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Subject AC 90-48, Collision Avoidance, Commercial Question No 48.

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

A. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.

B. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.

C. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.


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Subject Student Pilots, Instructor Question No 48.

To operate an aircraft on a solo flight within Class B airspace, a student must have a logbook endorsement showing that he/she has

A. received flight instruction from any authorized flight instructor on operating within Class B airspace.

B. received ground instruction on and flight instruction in that specific airspace for which solo flight is authorized.

C. within the preceding 90 days, been found to be competent by any flight instructor having knowledge of the student's experience in that specific airspace.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Instructor Question No 49.

What is the correct departure procedure at a noncontrolled airport?

A. The FAA-approved departure procedure for that airport.

B. Make all left turns, except a 45 right turn on the first crosswind leg.

C. Departure in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Instructor Question No 50.

What minimum pilot certificate will permit a pilot to enter all Class B airspace?

A. Private Pilot Certificate.

B. Commercial Pilot Certificate.

C. Student Pilot Certificate with an appropriate endorsement.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Instructor Question No 78.

While in Class E airspace in VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL?

A. 5 SM.

B. 3 SM.

C. 1 SM.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Instructor Question No 181.

Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?

A. 2,500 feet.

B. 3,000 feet.

C. 4,000 feet.


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Subject Flight Rules-General, Instructor Question No 340.

When operating VFR in Class B airspace, what are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements?

A. 3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.

B. 3 SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal distance from clouds.

C. 1 SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal distance from clouds.


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Subject Equipment and Certificate Reqmts, Instructor Question No 320.

What are the requirements, if any, to overfly Class C airspace?

A. None, provided the flight remains above the airspace ceiling.

B. Transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability is required above the airspace ceiling and upward to 10,000 feet MSL.

C. Two-way radio communications must be established with ATC and transponder must be operating at all times.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Instructor Question No 20.

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

A. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.

B. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.

C. Denotes intersecting runways.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Instructor Question No 22.

What is the purpose of No Entry sign?

A. Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.

B. Identifies area that does not continue beyond intersection.

C. Identifies the exit boundary for the runway protected area.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Instructor Question No 23.

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

A. Indicates direction to take-off runway.

B. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

C. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Instructor Question No 24.

What does a series of arrows painted on the approach end of a runway signify?

A. That area is restricted solely to taxi operations.

B. That portion of the runway is not suitable for landing.

C. That portion of the runway is the designated touchdown zone.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Instructor Question No 25.

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

A. 008 and 026 true.

B. 080 and 260 true.

C. 080 and 260 magnetic.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Instructor Question No 26.

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

A. Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway.

B. Identifies direction to take-off runways.

C. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.


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Subject Airport Marking Aids and Signs, Instructor Question No 30.

What is the purpose of the yellow demarcation bar marking?

A. Delineates runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway.

B. Delineates entrance to runway from a taxiway.

C. Delineates beginning of runway available for landing when pavement is aligned with runway on approach side.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Instructor Question No 124.

Within the contiguous United States, the floor of Class A airspace is

A. 14,500 feet MSL.

B. 18,000 feet MSL.

C. 18,000 feet AGL.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Instructor Question No 125.

(Refer to figure 47 .) Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas?

A. 3,000 feet AGL.

B. 3,000 feet above airport.

C. 4,000 feet above airport.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Instructor Question No 126.

(Refer to figure 47 .) What is the radius of the shelf area (circle A)?

A. 5 miles.

B. 10 miles.

C. 15 miles.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Instructor Question No 127.

(Refer to figure 44 .) Where does the floor of controlled airspace begin over Saginaw Airport (area 1)?

A. Surface.

B. 700 feet AGL.

C. 4,000 feet MSL.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Instructor Question No 128.

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

A. 10,000 feet MSL.

B. 14,500 feet MSL.

C. 18,000 feet MSL.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Instructor Question No 255.

(Refer to figure 46 .) What is the ceiling of the Class C airspace surrounding San Jose International Airport (area 2)?

A. 2,500 feet AGL.

B. 4,000 feet MSL.

C. 6,000 feet MSL.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Instructor Question No 256.

(Refer to figure 45 .) Assuming owner permission, what minimum avionics equipment is required for operation into Cuddihy Airport (area 8)?

A. Two-way radio communications equipment.

B. None, if altitude remains at or below 1,200 feet MSL.

C. Two-way radio communications equipment and transponder with encoding altimeter.


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Subject Controlled Airspace, Instructor Question No 258.

When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

A. The airspace designation normally will not change.

B. The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.

C. The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.


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Subject Special Use Airspace, Instructor Question No 123.

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

A. filed an IFR flight plan.

B. received prior authorization from the controlling agency.

C. received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.


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Subject Special Use Airspace, Instructor Question No 130.

When operating VFR in a military operations area (MOA), a pilot

A. must operate only when military activity is not being conducted.

B. should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

C. must obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.


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Subject Special Use Airspace, Instructor Question No 131.

(Refer to figure 45 .) What are the requirements for operating in the alert area (area 6) just west of Corpus Christi International Airport (area 3)?

A. Contact with approach control on frequency 120.9 is required.

B. Prior permission must be obtained from the controlling agency.

C. There are no requirements, but pilots should be extremely cautious due to extensive student training.


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Subject Other Airspace Areas, Instructor Question No 116.

Local Airport Advisory service is usually available at all airports

A. with operating control towers.

B. where a Flight Service Station is located on the airport.

C. located in Class C airspace and within 10 NM of the primary airport.


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Subject Service Available to Pilots, Instructor Question No 257.

(Refer to figure 44 .) What minimum avionics equipment is necessary to operate in the airspace up to 3,000 feet MSL over Northwest Airport (area 2)?

A. None required.

B. Transponder and encoding altimeter.

C. Two-way radio communications equipment, transponder, and encoding altimeter.


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Subject Airport Operations, Instructor Question No 120.

(Refer to figure 54 .) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic pattern is

A. left-hand for Rwy 17 and right-hand for Rwy 35.

B. right-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 9.

C. left-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 17.


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Subject Airport Operations, Instructor Question No 121.

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

A. 45 to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.

B. to enter 45 at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

C. to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.


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Subject Fitness for Flight, Instructor Question No 310.

Which technique should a student be taught to scan for traffic to the right and left during straightand- level flight?

A. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.

B. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.

C. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.


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Subject Airport/Facility Directory, Instructor Question No 154.

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

A. NOTAM's.

B. Airport/Facility Directory.

C. Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.


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Subject AC 90-48, Collision Avoidance, Instructor Question No 455.

Most midair collision accidents occur during

A. hazy days.

B. clear days.

C. cloudy nights.


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