Answer A is Incorrect, Try Again


Answer B is Incorrect, Try Again


Answer C is Incorrect, Try Again


Answer A is correct. Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations, Section 1.1
Category: As used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a grouping based upon use or limitations. Examples include: transport, normal, utility, acrobatic, limited, restricted, and provisional.

Answer B is correct. Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations, Section 1.1
Class: As used with respect to the certification ... of airmen, means a classification of aircraft within a category. Examples include: single engine; multiengine; land; sea; gyroplane; helicopter; airship; and free balloon.

Answer A is correct. Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations, Section 1.1
Class: As used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a broad grouping having similar characteristics. Examples include: airplane; rotorcraft; glider; balloon; landplane; and seaplane..

Answer A is correct. Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations, Section 1.2
VA means design maneuvering speed.

Answer C is correct. Part 43 Maintenance & Preventive Maintenance, Section 43.9(a)
... each person who maintains, performs preventive maintenance, ... shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment containing the following information:(1) A description of work performed; (2) The date of completion of the work; (3) The name of the person performing the work; (4)... the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work.

Answer B is correct. Part 43 Maintenance & Preventive Maintenance, Section 43 App A(c)
Preventive maintenance is limited to the following work: (8) Replenishing hydraulic fluid in the hydraulic reservoir.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.3(a)(c)
(a) Pilot certificate. A person may not act as pilot in command ..., unless that person has a valid pilot certificate ... in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate. (c) Medical certificate. (2) A person is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section if that person-- (i) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a pilot certificate with a glider category rating; (iii) Is holding a pilot certificate or a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating, and is piloting or providing training in a glider.

Answer A is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.60
The holder of a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the certificate unless the holder has notified in writing the FAA.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.56(c)(d)(e)
... no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless, since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which that pilot acts as pilot in command, that person has-- Accomplished a flight review given in an aircraft for which that pilot is rated by an authorized instructor;... passed a pilot proficiency check conducted by an examiner, an approved pilot check airman, or a U.S. Armed Force, for a pilot certificate, rating, or operating privilege; ... satisfactorily accomplished one or more phases of an FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency award program.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.3(a)(c)
(a) Pilot certificate. A person may not act as pilot in command ..., unless that person has a valid pilot certificate ... in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate. (c) Medical certificate. (2) A person is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section if that person-- (i) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a pilot certificate with a glider category rating; (iii) Is holding a pilot certificate or a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating, and is piloting or providing training in a glider.

Answer A is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.15(e)
Each person holding a certificate issued under this part shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division, not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.69(a)(6)
No person may act as pilot in command for towing a glider unless that person: ... Within the preceding 12 months has-- (i) Made at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot who meets the requirements of this section; or (ii) Made at least three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed by an aircraft.

Answer B is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.69(a)(2)
No person may act as pilot in command for towing a glider unless that person: ... Has logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

Answer B is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.113(d)
A private pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft used in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization ... and for which the passengers make a donation to the organization.

Answer B is correct. Part 71 Designation of Airspace, Section 71.75(c)(1)
Each Federal airway includes that airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface of the earth to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL, except that Federal airways for Hawaii have no upper limits.

Answer B is correct. Part 71 Designation of Airspace, Section 91.155(c)(d)
no person may operate an aircraft ... under VFR within the lateral boundaries of ... an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. ... no person may take off or land an aircraft ... under VFR, within ... the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport-- Unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 statute miles.

Answer A is correct. Part 71 Designation of Airspace, Section 71.75(b)(1)
Each Federal airway includes the airspace within parallel boundary lines 4 miles each side of the center line.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.9(a)
... no person may operate a civil aircraft without complying with the operating limitations specified in the approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, markings, and placards.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.17(a)
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft-- (1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage; (2) While under the influence of alcohol; (3) While using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any way contrary to safety; or (4) While having .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.17(b)
Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.17(a)
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft-- (1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage; (2) While under the influence of alcohol; (3) While using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any way contrary to safety; or (4) While having .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.3(a)
The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.3(b)
In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent required to meet that emergency.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.15
No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.105(a)(b)
During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall-- Keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. ... Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.103(b)
Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This information must include-- For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information: ... appropriate to the aircraft, relating to aircraft performance under expected values of airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind and temperature.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.103(b)
Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This information must include-- For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information: ... appropriate to the aircraft, relating to aircraft performance under expected values of airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind and temperature.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.107(a)
No pilot may take off a U.S.-registered civil aircraft ... unless each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness. No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, take off, or land ... unless each person on board has been notified to fasten his or her safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness. ... each person on board ... must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.103(a)
Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This information must include-- For a flight ... not in the vicinity of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.107(a)
No pilot may take off a U.S.-registered civil aircraft ... unless each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness. No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, take off, or land ... unless each person on board has been notified to fasten his or her safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness. ... each person on board ... must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.3(a)
The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.3(c)
Each pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph (b) of this section shall, upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.130(c)(1)
Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility ... providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.127(b)
Departures. Each pilot of an aircraft must comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in part 93 of this chapter.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 3-2-5 AIM
During the hours the tower is not in operation, the Class E surface area rules or a combination of Class E rules to 700 ft AGL and Class G rules to the surface will become applicable.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 3-2-5 AIM
Class D airspace areas are depicted on Sectional and Terminal charts with blue segmented lines.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.130(d)
no person may operate an aircraft within a Class C airspace area designated for an airport unless that aircraft is equipped with the applicable equipment specified in Sec. 91.215 (transponder having 4096 code capability and Mode C pressure altitude reporting capability).

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.123(d)
Each pilot in command who (though not deviating from a rule of this subpart) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.111
No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.125
Steady green - on the surface = Cleared for takeoff; in flight = Cleared to land.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.123(d)
Each pilot in command who (though not deviating from a rule of this subpart) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.113(d)
If the aircraft are of different categories-- A balloon has the right-of-way over any other category of aircraft; A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, or rotorcraft; and An airship has the right-of-way over an airplane or rotorcraft. However, an aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.113(d)
When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.126(d)
... no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.113(c)
An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.121(a)(1)
Each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising altitude ... by reference to an altimeter that is set, when operating-- Below 18,000 feet MSL, to-- The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft; ... or the current reported altimeter setting of an appropriate available station; or ... the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.123(a)
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, an emergency exists, or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.155(a)
Basic VFR weather minimums. Class C; D; and E (<10,000 ft MSL) - 3 statute miles; 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.155(a)
Basic VFR weather minimums. Class G: (1,200 feet or less AGL) Day - 1 statute mile; Clear of clouds. Night - 3 statute miles; 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.155(a)
Basic VFR weather minimums. Class C; D; and E (<10,000 ft MSL) - 3 statute miles; 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.155(a)
Basic VFR weather minimums. Class C; D; and E (<10,000 ft MSL) - 3 statute miles; 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.155(a)
Basic VFR weather minimums. Class G: (>1,200 ft AGL but <10,000 ft MSL) Day - 1 statute mile; 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal. Night - 3 statute miles; 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.155(c)(d)
no person may operate an aircraft ... under VFR within the lateral boundaries of ... an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. ... no person may take off or land an aircraft ... under VFR, within ... the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport-- Unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 statute miles.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.203(a)
no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it the following: An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate. An effective U.S. registration certificate.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.303
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight-- Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement; Over an open air assembly of persons; Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport; Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal airway; Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.303
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight-- Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement; Over an open air assembly of persons; Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport; Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal airway; Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.303
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight-- Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement; Over an open air assembly of persons; Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport; Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal airway; Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.313(e)
no person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft within the United States-- Over a densely populated area; In a congested airway; or Near a busy airport where passenger transport operations are conducted.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.319(c)
Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator in special operating limitations, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.407(b)
No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until ... at least a private pilot ... flies the aircraft, makes an operational check ..., and logs the flight in the aircraft records.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.405(b)
Each owner or operator of an aircraft-- ... Shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.409(b)
... no person may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for hire, and no person may give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection ... The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.403(a)
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with part 39 (Airworthiness Directives) of this chapter.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.409(a)
No inspection performed under paragraph (b)(100 hour inspections) of this section may be substituted for any inspection required by this paragraph (annual inspections) unless it is performed by a person authorized to perform annual inspections and is entered as an "annual" inspection in the required maintenance records.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.409(a)
no person may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, it has had-- An annual inspection in accordance with part 43 of this chapter and has been approved for return to service by a person authorized by Sec. 43.7 of this chapter.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.417(a)(2)
... each registered owner or operator shall keep ... The current status of applicable airworthiness directives (AD) including, for each, the method of compliance, the AD number, and revision date. If the AD involves recurring action, the time and date when the next action is required.

Answer C is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.5(a)(b)
The operator of any civil aircraft ... shall immediately ... notify the nearest NTSB field office when: An aircraft accident or any of the following incidents occur: Flight control system malfunction or failure; Inability of ... flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties ...; In-flight fire; Aircraft collide in flight; Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 ...; An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

Answer A is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.5(a)(b)
The operator of any civil aircraft ... shall immediately ... notify the nearest NTSB field office when: An aircraft accident or any of the following incidents occur: Flight control system malfunction or failure; Inability of ... flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties ...; In-flight fire; Aircraft collide in flight; Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 ...; An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

Answer B is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.10(b)
Prior to the time the Board ... takes custody of aircraft wreckage ... such wreckage ... may not be disturbed or moved except to the extent necessary: To remove persons injured or trapped; To protect the wreckage from further damage; or To protect the public from injury.

Answer C is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.15(a)
The operator of a civil ... aircraft shall file a report ... within 10 days after an accident, or after 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing. A report on an incident for which immediate notification is required ... shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the Board.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 3-8
The pull of gravity provides the forward motion necessary to move the wings through the air in the same way a car coasting downhill receives its forward momentum through the pull of gravity on its own weight.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 4-14
During a slipping turn, the tail of the yaw string will be offset toward the outside of a turn. The ball moves to the inside of the turn to indicate a slip, or to the outside to indicate a skid.

Answer C is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 2-7

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 4-3
If during flight, rough air or severe turbulence is encountered, the airspeed should be reduced to maneuvering speed or less to minimize the stress on the glider structure.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 5-12
Weight X Arm = Moment. Total Moment / Total Weight = CG (inches aft of datum).

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 5-13
Removable trim ballast weights...are designed to compensate for a front seat pilot who weighs less than the minimum permissible front seat pilot weight.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 5-13
Removable trim ballast weights...are designed to compensate for a front seat pilot who weighs less than the minimum permissible front seat pilot weight.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 7-2
Towplane Cannot Release! (After receiving signal that glider cannot release, towplane yaws repeatedly)

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 7-1
Release Towrope or Stop Engine Now (Draw arm across throat)

Answer C is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 12-2
Hold. Wingrunner holds both hands up to signal the tow pilot to delay takeoff because of traffic or other reasons.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 7-1
Stop Operation Immediately! (Wave arms)

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 7-2
Towplane Please Turn Right (Glider pulls towplane tail to left)

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 7-2
Glider Cannot Release! (Glider moves to left side of towplane and rocks wings)

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 7-2
Decrease Tow Airspeed! (Glider yaws repeatedly)

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 7-4
Prior to the towplane becoming airborne and after the glider lifts off, the glider pilot should turn into the wind and establish a wind correction angle to remain behind the towplane.

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 4-5
Land absorbs and radiates heat faster than water. This creates a temperature and pressure difference over the two kinds of surfaces. On sunny days, the cool, dense air over the ocean moves inward and forces the warmer coastal air to rise.

Answer C is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 9-4
Solving for Time - Rotate the computer disc until the speed index is located directly under (the speed). The answer is read from the middle scale, directly below (the distance).

Answer A is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 9-4
Solving for Time - Rotate the computer disc until the speed index is located directly under (the speed). The answer is read from the middle scale, directly below (the distance).

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-2
Angle of Attack - the angle between the chord line of the wing and the direction of the relative wind.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-2
Angle of Attack - the angle between the chord line of the wing and the direction of the relative wind.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 2-2
Extending flaps...increases wing lift and also increases induced drag. Increased lift enables a pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without an increase in airspeed.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 2-18
The registered owner of an aircraft is responsible for certain items such as: Maintaining the aircraft in an airworthy condition including compliance with applicable Airworthiness Directives.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-6
There are other important airspeed limitations not marked on the face of the airspeed indicator... One example is the MANEUVERING SPEED.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-6
MAXIMUM STRUCTURAL CRUISING SPEED (the upper limit of the green arc). This is the maximum speed for normal operation.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-6
FLAP OPERATING RANGE (the white arc).

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-6
MAXIMUM FLAPS EXTENDED SPEED (the upper limit of the white arc). This is the highest airspeed at which the pilot should extend full flaps.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-6
NEVER-EXCEED SPEED (the red line). This is the maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air. This speed should never be exceeded intentionally.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-1
As the airplane moves through the air, the impact pressure on the open pitot tube affects the pressure in the pitot chamber. Any change of pressure in the pitot chamber is transmitted through a line connected to the airspeed indicator which utilizes impact pressure for its operation.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-6
NEVER-EXCEED SPEED (the red line). This is the maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air. This speed should never be exceeded intentionally.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-4
True Altitude - The true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level - the actual altitude.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-2
The shortest hand indicates altitude in tens of thousands of feet; the intermediate hand in thousands of feet; and the longest hand in hundreds of feet, subdivided into 20-foot increments.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-4
The numerical values of pressure indicated in the window increase while the altimeter indicates an increase in altitude; or a decrease while the altimeter indicates a decrease in altitude.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-2
This indicated altitude is correct, however, only if sea level barometric pressure is standard (29.92 in. Hg.), the sea level free air temperature is standard (+15oC or 59oF).

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-4
Pressure Altitude - The altitude indicated when the altimeter setting window (barometric scale) is adjusted to 29.92.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-4
Density Altitude - This altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations. When conditions are standard, pressure altitude and density altitude are the same. Consequently, if the temperature is above standard, the density altitude will be higher than pressure altitude.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-4
True Altitude - The true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level - the actual altitude.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-4
Absolute Altitude - The vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-1
There are two major parts of the pitot-static system: (1) impact pressure chamber and lines; and (2) static pressure chamber and lines, which provides the source of ambient air pressure for the operation of the altimeter, vertical speed indicator, and the airspeed indicator.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-10
An adjustment knob is provided with which the pilot may move the miniature airplane up or down to align the miniature airplane with the horizon bar to suit the pilot's line of vision.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-10
The relationship of the miniature airplane to the horizon bar should be used for an indication of the direction of bank.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-9
Bear in mind that the heading indicator is not direction-seeking, as is the magnetic compass. It is important to check the indications frequently and reset the heading indicator to align it with the magnetic compass when required.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-8
The turn coordinator shows the yaw and roll of the aircraft around the vertical and longitudinal axes.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-12
When on an east or west heading, no error is apparent while entering a turn to north or south; however, an increase in airspeed or acceleration will cause the compass to indicate a turn toward north; a decrease in airspeed or acceleration will cause the compass to indicate a turn toward south. If on a north or south heading, no error will be apparent because of acceleration or deceleration.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-11
Deviation Magnetic disturbances from magnetic fields produced by metals and electrical accessories in an aircraft disturb the compass needles and produce an additional error.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-12
The magnetic compass should be read only when the aircraft is flying straight and level at a constant speed. This will help reduce errors to a minimum.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-12
When on an east or west heading, no error is apparent while entering a turn to north or south; however, an increase in airspeed or acceleration will cause the compass to indicate a turn toward north; a decrease in airspeed or acceleration will cause the compass to indicate a turn toward south. If on a north or south heading, no error will be apparent because of acceleration or deceleration.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 1-4
The pilot can contribute to collision avoidance by being alert and scanning for other aircraft.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 5-12
An airplane must be stalled in order to enter a spin.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 5-11
As the airplane rotates around a vertical axis, the rising wing is less stalled than the descending wing creating a rolling, yawing, and pitching motion.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 6-2
On a warm day, a given mass of air expands to a larger volume than on a cold day, raising the pressure levels. For example, the pressure level where the altimeter indicates 5,000 feet is HIGHER on a warm day.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 6-4
Do not be confused by the fact that as the barometric pressure scale is moved, the indicator needles move in the same direction. (1" Hg = 1,000 feet)

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 6-16
In the Northern Hemisphere, when making a turn from a northerly heading, the compass gives an initial indication of a turn in the opposite direction.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 7-8
The preflight inspection is a thorough and systematic means by which a pilot determines if the aircraft is airworthy and in condition for safe operation.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 9-20
First, compute the pressure altitude conversion. Find the "Altimeter Setting" and read across to the "Pressure Altitude Conversion Factor" and add it to or subtract it from the airport elevation. Next, locate the outside air temperature on the scale along the bottom of the graph. Draw a line up to the pressure altitude line. Draw a line straight across to the far left side of the graph and read the approximate density altitude.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 9-20
First, compute the pressure altitude conversion. Find the "Altimeter Setting" and read across to the "Pressure Altitude Conversion Factor" and add it to or subtract it from the airport elevation. Next, locate the outside air temperature on the scale along the bottom of the graph. Draw a line up to the pressure altitude line. Draw a line straight across to the far left side of the graph and read the approximate density altitude.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 9-20
First, compute the pressure altitude conversion. Find the "Altimeter Setting" and read across to the "Pressure Altitude Conversion Factor" and add it to or subtract it from the airport elevation. Next, locate the outside air temperature on the scale along the bottom of the graph. Draw a line up to the pressure altitude line. Draw a line straight across to the far left side of the graph and read the approximate density altitude.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 9-20
First, compute the pressure altitude conversion. Find the "Altimeter Setting" and read across to the "Pressure Altitude Conversion Factor" and add it to or subtract it from the airport elevation. Next, locate the outside air temperature on the scale along the bottom of the graph. Draw a line up to the pressure altitude line. Draw a line straight across to the far left side of the graph and read the approximate density altitude.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 9-20
First, compute the pressure altitude conversion. Find the "Altimeter Setting" and read across to the "Pressure Altitude Conversion Factor" and add it to or subtract it from the airport elevation. Next, locate the outside air temperature on the scale along the bottom of the graph. Draw a line up to the pressure altitude line. Draw a line straight across to the far left side of the graph and read the approximate density altitude.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 10-4
Standard sea level pressure is defined as 29.92 in. Hg. at 59oF(15oC).

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 10-9
Wind shear is a sudden, drastic change in windspeed and/or direction over a very small area. ..While wind shear can occur at any altitude, low-level wind shear is especially hazardous due to the proximity of an aircraft to the ground.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6, Aviation Weather, Page 64
Stable Air: Stratiform clouds and fog; Continuous precipitation; Smooth air; Fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 11-3
A standard briefing is the most complete report and provides the overall weather picture. This type of briefing should be obtained prior to the departure of any flight and should be used during flight planning.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 11-3
A standard briefing is the most complete report and provides the overall weather picture. This type of briefing should be obtained prior to the departure of any flight and should be used during flight planning.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 12-13
Landing behind a larger aircraft on the same runway - stay at or above the larger aircraft's approach flightpath and land beyond its touchdown point.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 12-13
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 12-13
Tests have also shown that the vortices sink at a rate of several hundred feet per minute.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 12-13
Vortices are generated from the moment aircraft leave the ground, since trailing vortices are a by-product of wing lift.

Answer B is correct. Aeronautical Information Manual, Section 7-3-4(b)
A light wind with a cross runway component of 1 to 5 knots could result in the upwind vortex remaining in the touchdown zone ... and hasten the drift of the downwind vortex toward another runway. A tailwind condition can move the vortices ... into the touchdown zone. THE LIGHT QUARTERING TAILWIND REQUIRES MAXIMUM CAUTION.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-3
UTC is the time at the 0o line of longitude. To convert to this time, a pilot should do the following: Eastern Standard Time - Add 5 hours; Central Standard Time - Add 6 hours; Mountain Standard Time - Add 7 hours; Pacific Standard Time - Add 8 hours. For daylight saving time, 1 hour should be subtracted from the calculated times.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-3
UTC is the time at the 0o line of longitude. To convert to this time, a pilot should do the following: Eastern Standard Time - Add 5 hours; Central Standard Time - Add 6 hours; Mountain Standard Time - Add 7 hours; Pacific Standard Time - Add 8 hours. For daylight saving time, 1 hour should be subtracted from the calculated times.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-3
UTC is the time at the 0o line of longitude. To convert to this time, a pilot should do the following: Eastern Standard Time - Add 5 hours; Central Standard Time - Add 6 hours; Mountain Standard Time - Add 7 hours; Pacific Standard Time - Add 8 hours. For daylight saving time, 1 hour should be subtracted from the calculated times.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-3
UTC is the time at the 0o line of longitude. To convert to this time, a pilot should do the following: Eastern Standard Time - Add 5 hours; Central Standard Time - Add 6 hours; Mountain Standard Time - Add 7 hours; Pacific Standard Time - Add 8 hours. For daylight saving time, 1 hour should be subtracted from the calculated times.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-2
Circles parallel to the Equator (lines running east and west) are parallels of latitude. They are used to measure degrees of latitude north and south of the Equator. Meridians of longitude are drawn from the North Pole to the South Pole and are at right angles to the Equator. The "Prime Meridian" which passes through Greenwich, England, is used as the zero line from which measurements are made in degrees east and west to 180o.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-3
UTC is the time at the 0o line of longitude. To convert to this time, a pilot should do the following: Eastern Standard Time - Add 5 hours; Central Standard Time - Add 6 hours; Mountain Standard Time - Add 7 hours; Pacific Standard Time - Add 8 hours. For daylight saving time, 1 hour should be subtracted from the calculated times.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-2
Circles parallel to the Equator (lines running east and west) are parallels of latitude. They are used to measure degrees of latitude north and south of the Equator. Meridians of longitude are drawn from the North Pole to the South Pole and are at right angles to the Equator. The "Prime Meridian" which passes through Greenwich, England, is used as the zero line from which measurements are made in degrees east and west to 180o.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-3
UTC is the time at the 0o line of longitude. To convert to this time, a pilot should do the following: Eastern Standard Time - Add 5 hours; Central Standard Time - Add 6 hours; Mountain Standard Time - Add 7 hours; Pacific Standard Time - Add 8 hours. For daylight saving time, 1 hour should be subtracted from the calculated times.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Figure 14-18

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Figure 14-18

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-4
True direction must be converted to magnetic direction...by adding or subtracting the variation which is indicated by the nearest isogonic line on the chart.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-4
True direction must be converted to magnetic direction...by adding or subtracting the variation which is indicated by the nearest isogonic line on the chart.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-18
The course or radials projected from the station are referenced to magnetic north. Therefore, a radial is defined as a line of magnetic bearing extending outward from the VOR station... To aid in orientation, a compass rose reference to magnetic north is superimposed on aeronautical charts at the station location.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-23
Magnetic Bearing - "TO" the station is the angle formed by a line drawn from the aircraft to the station and a line drawn from the aircraft to magnetic north. The magnetic bearing to the station can be determined by adding the relative bearing to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-24
To determine the magnetic bearing "FROM" the station, 180o is added to or subtracted from the magnetic bearing to the station.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-24
To determine the magnetic bearing "FROM" the station, 180o is added to or subtracted from the magnetic bearing to the station.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-23
Magnetic Bearing - "TO" the station is the angle formed by a line drawn from the aircraft to the station and a line drawn from the aircraft to magnetic north. The magnetic bearing to the station can be determined by adding the relative bearing to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-23
Magnetic Bearing - "TO" the station is the angle formed by a line drawn from the aircraft to the station and a line drawn from the aircraft to magnetic north. The magnetic bearing to the station can be determined by adding the relative bearing to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-23
Relative Bearing - is the angle measured clockwise from the nose of the aircraft to a line drawn from the aircraft to the station.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-19
If the course selector is rotated until the deviation needle is centered, the radial (magnetic course "FROM" the station) or its reciprocal (magnetic course "TO" the station) can be determined. The course deviation needle will also move to the right or left if the aircraft is flown or drifting away from the radial which is set in the course selector.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-20
If the aircraft passes to one side of the station, the needle will deflect in the direction of the station as the indicator changes to "FROM."

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-19
If the course selector is rotated until the deviation needle is centered, the radial (magnetic course "FROM" the station) or its reciprocal (magnetic course "TO" the station) can be determined. The course deviation needle will also move to the right or left if the aircraft is flown or drifting away from the radial which is set in the course selector.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-20
If the aircraft passes to one side of the station, the needle will deflect in the direction of the station as the indicator changes to "FROM."

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-18
The course or radials projected from the station are referenced to magnetic north. Therefore, a radial is defined as a line of magnetic bearing extending outward from the VOR station... To aid in orientation, a compass rose reference to magnetic north is superimposed on aeronautical charts at the station location.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-18
The course or radials projected from the station are referenced to magnetic north. Therefore, a radial is defined as a line of magnetic bearing extending outward from the VOR station... To aid in orientation, a compass rose reference to magnetic north is superimposed on aeronautical charts at the station location.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-19
If the course selector is rotated until the deviation needle is centered, the radial (magnetic course "FROM" the station) or its reciprocal (magnetic course "TO" the station) can be determined. The course deviation needle will also move to the right or left if the aircraft is flown or drifting away from the radial which is set in the course selector.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-18
The course or radials projected from the station are referenced to magnetic north. Therefore, a radial is defined as a line of magnetic bearing extending outward from the VOR station... To aid in orientation, a compass rose reference to magnetic north is superimposed on aeronautical charts at the station location.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-18
The course or radials projected from the station are referenced to magnetic north. Therefore, a radial is defined as a line of magnetic bearing extending outward from the VOR station... To aid in orientation, a compass rose reference to magnetic north is superimposed on aeronautical charts at the station location.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 15-5
The body cannot distinguish between acceleration forces due to gravity and those resulting from maneuvering the aircraft, which can lead to sensory illusions and false impressions of the aircraft's orientation and movement.

Answer C is correct. Multiple Sources,
Weather involves movement of air and changes of state of water. Air movement ultimately can be traced to heating from the sun. Changes of state of water (evaporation, condensation, melting, freezing, and sublimation) all involve adding or releasing heat.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 23
Differences in temperature create differences in pressure. These pressure differences drive a complex system of winds in a never ending attempt to reach equilibrium.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 9
An increase in temperature with altitude is defined as an inversion, i.e. lapse rate is inverted.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 9
An inversion often develops near the ground on clear, cool nights when wind is light. The ground radiates and cools much faster than the overlying air.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 10
A ground based inversion favors poor visibility by trapping fog, smoke, and other restrictions into low levels of the atmosphere.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 20
On a hot day, the air becomes "thinner" or lighter, and its density where you are is equivalent to a higher altitude in the standard atmosphere - thus the term "high density altitude."

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 19
Pressure altitude is the altitude in the standard atmosphere where pressure is the same as where you are.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 19
Density altitude simply is the altitude in the standard atmosphere where air density is the same as where you are.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 15
When flying from high pressure to lower pressure without adjusting your altimeter, you are losing true altitude.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 14
When air is colder than average, the altimeter reads higher than true altitude. When air is warmer than standard, the altimeter reads lower than true altitude.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 30
Friction between the wind and the terrain surface slows the wind. As frictional force slows the windspeed, Coriolis force decreases. The stronger pressure gradient force turns the wind at an angle to the isobars toward lower pressure.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 38
Dew point is the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated by the water vapor already present in the air.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 38
Temperature largely determines the maximum amount of water vapor air can hold.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 40/41
As air becomes saturated, water vapor begins to condense on the nearest available surface. Some condensation nuclei have an affinity for water and can induce condensation or sublimation even when air is almost but not completely saturated.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 39
Evaporation, condensation, sublimation, freezing, and melting are changes of state. Evaporation is the changing of liquid water to invisible water vapor. Condensation is the reverse process. Sublimation is the changing of ice directly to water vapor, or water vapor to ice, bypassing the liquid state in each process.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 41
Frost forms in much the same way as dew. The difference is that the dew point of surrounding air must be colder than freezing. Water vapor then sublimates directly as ice crystals or frost rather than condensing as dew.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 43
Ice pellets always indicate freezing rain at higher altitude.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 51
In a convective current, temperature and dew point converge at about 4.4 degrees F (2.5 degrees C) per 1,000 feet.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 64
Unstable Air: Cumuliform clouds; Showery precipitation; Rough air (turbulence); Good visibility, except in blowing obstructions.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 64
Unstable Air: Cumuliform clouds; Showery precipitation; Rough air (turbulence); Good visibility, except in blowing obstructions.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 50
Since stable air resists convection, clouds in stable air form in horizontal, sheet-like layers or "strata." Thus, within a stable layer, clouds are stratiform. Adiabatic cooling may be by upslope flow; by lifting over cold, more dense air; or by converging winds.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 52
If the temperature increases with altitude through a layer - an inversion - the layer is stable and convection is suppressed.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 50
Unstable air favors convection. A "cumulus" cloud, meaning "heap," forms in a convective updraft and builds upward. Thus, within an unstable layer, clouds are cumuliform; and the vertical extent of the cloud depends on the depth of the unstable layer.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 42
A mass of air in which the temperature decreases rapidly with height favors instability; but, air tends to be stable if the temperature changes little or not at all with altitude.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 49
Surface heating or cooling aloft can make the air more unstable; on the other hand, surface cooling or warming aloft often tips the balance toward greater stability.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 50
Since stable air resists convection, clouds in stable air form in horizontal, sheet-like layers or "strata." Thus, within a stable layer, clouds are stratiform. Adiabatic cooling may be by upslope flow; by lifting over cold, more dense air; or by converging winds.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 53
The prefix nimbo or the suffix nimbus means raincloud.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 53
For identification purposes, you need be concerned only with the more basic cloud types, which are divided into four "families." The families are: high clouds, middle clouds, low clouds, and clouds with extensive vertical development.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 85
Crests of the standing waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as "standing lenticular" clouds. They form in the updraft and dissipate in the downdraft, so they do not move as the wind blows through them.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 85
Crests of the standing waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as "standing lenticular" clouds. They form in the updraft and dissipate in the downdraft, so they do not move as the wind blows through them.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 56
Towering cumulus signifies a relatively deep layer of unstable air. Showers can result from these clouds. Very strong turbulence; some clear icing above the freezing level.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 57
Cumulonimbus are the ultimate manifestation of instability. Nearly the entire spectrum of flying hazards are contained in these clouds including violent turbulence.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 65
Temperature is one of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 65
Wind always changes across a front. Wind discontinuity may be in direction, in speed, or in both.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 64
Stable Air: Stratiform clouds and fog; Continuous precipitation; Smooth air; Fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 64
The zone between two different air masses is a frontal zone or front.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 83
MOUNTAIN WAVE: When stable air crosses a mountain barrier ... air flowing up the windward side is relatively smooth. Wind flow across the barrier is laminar - that is, it tend to flow in layers. The barrier may set up waves in these layers ... The waves remain nearly stationary while the wind blows rapidly through them. .. The wave pattern may extend 100 miles or more downwind from the barrier.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 86
Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. Three conditions are of special interest - (1) wind shear with a low-level temperature inversion, (2) wind shear in a frontal zone, and (3) clear air turbulence (CAT) at high levels associated with a jet stream or strong circulation.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 88
You can be relatively certain of a shear zone in the inversion if you know the wind at 2,000 to 4,000 feet is 25 knots or more. Allow a margin of airspeed above normal climb or approach speed to alleviate danger of a stall in the event of turbulence or sudden change in wind velocity.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 92
Two conditions are necessary for structural icing in flight: (1) the aircraft must be flying through visible water such as rain or cloud droplets, and (2) the temperature at the point where the moisture strikes the aircraft must be 0 degrees C or colder. Aerodynamic cooling can lower temperature of an airfoil to 0 degrees C even though the ambient temperature is a few degrees warmer.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 100
A condition favorable for rapid accumulation of clear icing is freezing rain below a frontal surface. Rain forms above the frontal surface at temperatures warmer than freezing. Subsequently, it falls through air at temperatures below freezing and becomes supercooled. The supercooled drops freeze on impact with an aircraft surface.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloud base is your signal that a downdraft has developed and a cell has entered the mature stage.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
For a thunderstorm to form, the air must have (1) sufficient water vapor, (2) an unstable lapse rate, and (3) an initial boost (lifting) to start the storm process in motion.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
For a thunderstorm to form, the air must have (1) sufficient water vapor, (2) an unstable lapse rate, and (3) an initial boost (lifting) to start the storm process in motion.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
Downdrafts characterize the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm cell and the storm dies rapidly.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
All thunderstorm hazards reach their greatest intensity during the mature stage.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 114
A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often it develops ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may develop in unstable air far removed from any front. It often contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to aircraft.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 114
A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often it develops ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may develop in unstable air far removed from any front. It often contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to aircraft.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 115
Outside the cloud, shear turbulence has been encountered several thousand feet above and 20 miles laterally from a severe storm. A low level turbulent area is the shear zone between the plow wind and surrounding air.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 123
During thunderstorm penetration: Don't change power settings; maintain settings for reduced airspeed. Do maintain a constant attitude; ... Maneuvers in trying to maintain constant altitude increase stresses on the aircraft.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
The key feature of the cumulus stage is an updraft.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 126
Conditions favorable for radiation fog are clear sky, little or no wind, and a small temperature-dew point spread (high relative humidity).

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 126
Fog is a surface based cloud composed of either water droplets or ice crystals. Small temperature-dew point spread is essential for fog to form.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 127
Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is common along coastal areas... Wind much stronger than 15 knots lifts the fog into a layer of low stratus or stratocumulus. This fog frequently forms offshore as a result of cold water and then is carried inland by the wind.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 127
Upslope fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain. Once the upslope wind ceases, the fog dissipates.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 153
Steam fog, often called "sea smoke," forms in winter when cold, dry air passes from land areas over comparatively warm ocean waters. Low level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 195
Wind blowing toward hills or ridges flows upward, over, and around the abrupt rises in terrain. The upward moving air creates lift which is sometimes excellent for soaring.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 173
Since thermals depend on solar heating, thermal soaring is restricted virtually to daylight hours with considerable sunshine.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 175
Stay out of the "eye" of the vortex.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 180
Thermal streeting may occur either in clear air or with convective clouds... A pilot can soar under a cloud street maintaining generally continuous flight and seldom, if ever, have to circle.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 178
When heating is slow or intermittent, a "bubble" may be pinched off and forced upward; after an interval ranging from a few minutes to an hour or more, another bubble forms and rises... Birds may be climbing in a bubble, but an aircraft attempting to enter the thermal at a lower altitude may find no lift.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 175
Cumulus clouds are positive signs of thermals, but thermals grow and die... The warmest and most rapidly rising air is in the center of the thermal. Therefore, the cloud base will be highest in the center giving a concave shape to the cloud base.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 173
Always approach the whirling vortex at an altitude 500 feet or more above the ground... Circle on the outside of the dust devil against the direction of rotation.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 173
Surface winds must converge to feed a rising thermal; so when you sight a likely spot for a thermal, look for dust or smoke movement near the surface. If you can see dust or smoke "streamers" from two or more sources converging on the spot, you have chosen wisely.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 173
If a rocky knob protrudes above a grassy plain, the most likely area of thermals is over the eastern slope in the forenoon and over the western slope in the afternoon.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 115
Outside the cloud, shear turbulence has been encountered several thousand feet above and 20 miles laterally from a severe storm. A low level turbulent area is the shear zone between the plow wind and surrounding air.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 191
Caused by the heating of land on warm, sunny days, the sea breeze usually begins during early forenoon, reaches a maximum during the afternoon, and subsides around dusk after the land has cooled. The leading edge of the cool sea breeze forces warmer air inland to rise.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 191
Caused by the heating of land on warm, sunny days, the sea breeze usually begins during early forenoon, reaches a maximum during the afternoon, and subsides around dusk after the land has cooled. The leading edge of the cool sea breeze forces warmer air inland to rise.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 171
"Zero sink" means that upward currents are just strong enough to hold altitude but not to climb... There is no point in trying to soar until weather conditions favor vertical speeds greater than the minimum sink rate of the aircraft.

Answer A is correct. Multiple Sources,
Thunder is caused by lightning. Unless there is lightning there can be no "thunder" storm.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 1-11
An "outlook" briefing will be provided when the proposed departure is 6 hours or more from the time of the briefing. Briefing will be limited to applicable forecast data needed for the proposed flight.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 1-10
When requesting a briefing, pilots should identify themselves as pilots and give clear and concise facts about their flight: 1. Type of flight (VFR or IFR) 2. Aircraft identification or pilotís name 3. Aircraft type 4. Departure point 5. Proposed time of departure 6. Flight altitude(s) 7. Route of flight 8. Destination 9. Estimated time en route (ETE)

Answer A is correct. Aeronautical Information Manual, Section 7-1-8
TWEB Generally, the broadcast contains route-oriented data with specially prepared NWS forecasts, Inflight Advisories, and winds aloft plus preselected current information.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 1-3
The transcribed weather broadcast (TWEB) provides continuous aeronautical and meteorological information on low/medium frequency (L/MF) and very high frequency (VHF) omni-directional radio range (VOR) facilities. The synopsis and route forecasts are prepared specifically for the TWEB by WFOs.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 1-11
An "abbreviated" briefing will be provided at the userís request: 1. To supplement mass disseminated data. 2. To update a previous briefing. 3. To request that the briefing be limited to specific information.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 1-11
An "outlook" briefing will be provided when the proposed departure is 6 hours or more from the time of the briefing. Briefing will be limited to applicable forecast data needed for the proposed flight.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 2-11
For aviation purposes, the ceiling is defined as the height (AGL) of the lowest broken or overcast layer aloft or vertical visibility into an obscuration.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 2-4
The wind element is reported as a five-digit group (six digits if speed is over 99 knots). The first three digits are the direction from which the wind is blowing in tens of degrees referenced to true north. The next two digits are the average speed in knots, or if over 99 knots, the next three digits. If the wind is gusty, G denoting gust is reported after the speed followed by the highest gust reported. The abbreviation KT is appended to denote the use of knots for wind speed.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 2-20
The contraction RMK follows the altimeter in the body and precedes the actual remarks. Time entries will be shown as minutes past the hour if the time reported occurs during the same hour the observation is taken. If the hour is different, hours and minutes will be shown.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 2-5
Prevailing visibility is reported in statute miles followed by a space, fractions of statute miles, as needed, and the letters SM.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 2-5
Prevailing visibility is reported in statute miles followed by a space, fractions of statute miles, as needed, and the letters SM.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6, Aviation Weather, Page 81
Billowy fair weather cumulus clouds,... are signposts in the sky indicating convective turbulence. The cloud top usually marks the approximate upper limit of the convective current.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6, Aviation Weather, Page 81
Billowy fair weather cumulus clouds,... are signposts in the sky indicating convective turbulence. The cloud top usually marks the approximate upper limit of the convective current.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 3-2
/TA Temperature (Celsius): If below zero, prefix with an "M." /WV Wind: Direction from which the wind is blowing coded in tens of degrees using three digits. The wind speed shall be entered as a two- or three-digit group. /TB Turbulence: Include altitude only if different from FL. /IC Icing: /RM Remarks: Use free form to clarify the report putting hazardous elements first.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 2-11
For aviation purposes, the ceiling is defined as the height (AGL) of the lowest broken or overcast layer aloft or vertical visibility into an obscuration.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 3-2
/TA Temperature (Celsius): If below zero, prefix with an "M." /WV Wind: Direction from which the wind is blowing coded in tens of degrees using three digits. The wind speed shall be entered as a two- or three-digit group. /TB Turbulence: Include altitude only if different from FL. /IC Icing: /RM Remarks: Use free form to clarify the report putting hazardous elements first.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 3-2
/TA Temperature (Celsius): If below zero, prefix with an "M." /WV Wind: Direction from which the wind is blowing coded in tens of degrees using three digits. The wind speed shall be entered as a two- or three-digit group. /TB Turbulence: Include altitude only if different from FL. /IC Icing: /RM Remarks: Use free form to clarify the report putting hazardous elements first.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-24
AIRMETs are intended for dissemination to all pilots in the preflight and en route phase of flight to enhance safety.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-26
Convective SIGMETs are issued for any of the following: 1. Severe thunderstorm due to: a. surface winds >= 50 knots; b. hail at the surface >= 3/4 inches in diameter; c. tornadoes; 2. Embedded thunderstorms; 3. A line of thunderstorms; 4. Thunderstorms >= VIP level 4 affecting 40% or more of an area at least 3000 square miles.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-23
A SIGMET advises of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft... SIGMETs are issued when the following occur or are expected to occur: 1. Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms; 2. Severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms; 3. Duststorms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash lowering ... visibilities to below three miles; 4. Volcanic ash.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-23
A SIGMET advises of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft... SIGMETs are issued when the following occur or are expected to occur: 1. Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms; 2. Severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms; 3. Duststorms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash lowering ... visibilities to below three miles; 4. Volcanic ash.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-35
A six-digit group shows wind direction, in reference to true north, wind speed in knots, and temperature in degrees Celsius. If a wind direction is coded between 51 and 86, subtract 50 from the wind direction and add 100 knots to the wind speed. When the forecast speed is less than 5 knots, the coded group is "9900" and read, "LIGHT AND VARIABLE."

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-35
A six-digit group shows wind direction, in reference to true north, wind speed in knots, and temperature in degrees Celsius. If a wind direction is coded between 51 and 86, subtract 50 from the wind direction and add 100 knots to the wind speed. When the forecast speed is less than 5 knots, the coded group is "9900" and read, "LIGHT AND VARIABLE."

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-35
A six-digit group shows wind direction, in reference to true north, wind speed in knots, and temperature in degrees Celsius. If a wind direction is coded between 51 and 86, subtract 50 from the wind direction and add 100 knots to the wind speed. When the forecast speed is less than 5 knots, the coded group is "9900" and read, "LIGHT AND VARIABLE."

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-3
The valid period of the forecast is a two-digit date followed by the two-digit beginning and two-digit ending hours in UTC. Routine TAFs are valid for 24 hours and are issued four times daily at 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, and 1800Z.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-6
The BECMG group is used when a gradual change in conditions is expected over a period not to exceed 2 hours. The time period when the change is expected to occur is a four-digit group containing the beginning and ending hours of the change that follows the BECMG indicator.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-4
Forecasted visibility greater than 6 statute miles is indicated by coding P6SM.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-5
Cumulonimbus clouds (CB) are the only cloud type forecasted in TAFs.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-26
Convective SIGMETs are issued for any of the following: 1. Severe thunderstorm due to: a. surface winds >= 50 knots; b. hail at the surface >= 3/4 inches in diameter; c. tornadoes; 2. Embedded thunderstorms; 3. A line of thunderstorms; 4. Thunderstorms >= VIP level 4 affecting 40% or more of an area at least 3000 square miles.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 2-8
Examples: TSRA indicates thunderstorm with moderate rain. +SHRA indicates heavy rainshowers. -FZRA indicates light freezing rain.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-6
The BECMG group is used when a gradual change in conditions is expected over a period not to exceed 2 hours. The time period when the change is expected to occur is a four-digit group containing the beginning and ending hours of the change that follows the BECMG indicator.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-3
Calm winds are encoded as 00000KT. A variable wind is encoded as VRB when wind direction fluctuates due to convective activity or low wind speeds (3 knots or less).

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-6
The BECMG group is used when a gradual change in conditions is expected over a period not to exceed 2 hours. The time period when the change is expected to occur is a four-digit group containing the beginning and ending hours of the change that follows the BECMG indicator.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Figure 5-2
AC00-6A p71 - As adjacent air masses modify and as temperature and pressure differences equalize across a front, the front dissipates. This process (is) frontolysis. Frontogenesis is the generation of a front.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 6-2
Cloud height above ground level (AGL) is entered under the station circle in hundreds of feet. If total sky cover at a station is scattered, the cloud height entered is the base of the lowest scattered cloud layer. If total sky cover is broken or greater at a station, the cloud height entered is the lowest broken or overcast cloud layer. A totally obscured sky is shown by the sky cover symbol "X" and is accompanied by the height entry of the vertical visibility into the obscuration. A partially obscured sky with clouds above will have a cloud height entry for the cloud layer.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 6-4
The weather depiction chart is an ideal place to begin preparing for a weather briefing and flight planning. From this chart, one can get a "birdís eye" view of areas of favorable and adverse weather conditions for chart time.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 6-4
IFR = Ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles; MVFR (Marginal VFR) = Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet inclusive and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles inclusive; VFR = No ceiling or ceiling greater than 3,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 7-1
This chart displays areas of precipitation as well as information about type, intensity, configuration, coverage, echo top, and cell movement of precipitation. Severe weather watches are plotted if they are in effect when the chart is valid.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 7-1
This chart displays areas of precipitation as well as information about type, intensity, configuration, coverage, echo top, and cell movement of precipitation. Severe weather watches are plotted if they are in effect when the chart is valid.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 7-3
Individual cell movement is indicated by an arrow with the speed in knots entered as a number at the top of the arrow head. Little movement is identified by LM. Line or area movement is no longer indicated on the chart.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 7-3
Heights are displayed in hundreds of feet MSL and should be considered only as approximations because of radar limitations. Tops are entered above a short line, with the top height displayed being the highest in the indicated area. Absence of a figure below the line indicates that the echo base is at or near the surface.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 11-5
Turbulence intensities are identified by symbols. The vertical extent of turbulence layers is specified by top and base heights in hundreds of feet. Height values are relative to MSL with the top and base heights separated by a line. A top height of "240" indicates turbulence at or above 24,000 feet. The base height is omitted where turbulence reaches the surface. For example, "080/ " identifies a turbulence layer from the surface to 8,000 feet MSL.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 11-4
The significant weather panels display forecast weather flying categories, freezing levels, and turbulence for the layer surface to FL240. A legend on the chart illustrates symbols and criteria used for these conditions.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 11-2
Continuous precipitation is a dominant and widespread event and, therefore, shaded. Intermittent precipitation is a periodic and patchy event and unshaded.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 11-4
Freezing levels aloft are depicted by thin, short dashed lines. Lines are drawn at 4,000-foot intervals beginning at 4,000 feet and labeled in hundreds of feet.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 11-4
The significant weather panels display forecast weather flying categories, freezing levels, and turbulence for the layer surface to FL240. A legend on the chart illustrates symbols and criteria used for these conditions.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-1-2(b)

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-1-2(a)(5)

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-1-2(c)

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-1-2(d)

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-1-2(a)(5)

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-1-2(c)

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-6(d)
For runways and taxiways which are permanently closed, the lighting circuits will be disconnected. The runway threshold, runway designation, and touchdown markings are obliterated and yellow crosses are placed at each end of the runway and at 1,000 foot intervals.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-3(h&i)
The portion of the runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold. A demarcation bar delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway. Chevrons are used to show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff, and taxiing. Chevrons are yellow.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-3(h&i)
The portion of the runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold. A demarcation bar delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway. Chevrons are used to show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff, and taxiing. Chevrons are yellow.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-3(h&i)
The portion of the runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold. A demarcation bar delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway. Chevrons are used to show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff, and taxiing. Chevrons are yellow.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-3(b)
The runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic azimuth of the centerline of the runway,...letters differentiate between left (L), right (R), or center (C), parallel runways.

Answer C is correct. Terminal Area Chart, Legend
Also applicable to Class C airspace.

Answer B is correct. Terminal Area Chart, Legend
Also applicable to Class C airspace.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-2-4(d)(3)
Two-way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility providing ATC services prior to entry and thereafter maintain those communications while in Class C airspace.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-2-4(b)
Outer Area: The normal radius will be 20 NM, with some variations based on site specific requirements.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-2-4(a)
Class C airspace...usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-2-5(a)
Class D Airspace Definition: Generally, that airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be designed to contain the procedures.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-4-6
Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. All activity within an alert area shall be conducted in accordance with CFRs, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transiting the area shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-4-5(b)
Most training activities necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-4-3(a)
Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft or its occupants.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-4-5(c)
Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within a MOA when military activity is being conducted. Prior to entering an active MOA, pilots should contact the controlling agency for traffic advisories.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-4-3(a)
Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft or its occupants.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-5-2(d)
MTRs with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by four number characters. MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by three number characters.

Answer A is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Table 4-1-1
No Tower, FSS, or UNICOMSelf-announce on MULTICOM frequency 122.910 miles out. Entering downwind, base, and final. Leaving the runway.

Answer B is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer C is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer C is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Table 4-1-1
No Tower, FSS, or UNICOMSelf-announce on MULTICOM frequency 122.910 miles out. Entering downwind, base, and final. Leaving the runway.

Answer B is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-2-4(d)(3)
Two-way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility providing ATC services prior to entry and thereafter maintain those communications while in Class C airspace.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-1-13(a)
ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded non-control information in selected high activity terminal areas.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-2-13(a)(3)
Transmitter and receiver inoperative: Remain outside or above Class D surface area until the direction and flow of traffic has been determined; then join the airport traffic pattern and maintain visual contact with the tower to receive light signals.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-2-9(a)
Up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, state the separate digits of the thousands plus the hundreds if appropriate. Example: 12,500 - one two thousand five hundred.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-2-9(a)
Up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, state the separate digits of the thousands plus the hundreds if appropriate. Example: 12,500 - one two thousand five hundred.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-2-6
Pilots, when calling a ground station, should begin with the name of the facility being called followed by the type of facility. (e.g. FAA Flight Service Station - "Chicago Radio")

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-3-3

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-3-3

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-3-3

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-3-3

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-3-3

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-3-20(d)
Immediately change to ground control frequency when advised by the tower and obtain a taxi clearance.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-4-14(b)
During climbs and descents in flight conditions which permit visual detection of other traffic, pilots should execute gentle banks, left and right at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about them.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-1-4
EFAS is a service specifically designed to provide en route aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories. EFAS provides communications capabilities for aircraft flying at 5,000 feet AGL to 17,500 feet MSL on 122.0 MHz. Contact flight watch by using the name of the ARTCC facility serving the area .., followed by your aircraft identification, and the name of the nearest VOR.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-1-4
EFAS is a service specifically designed to provide en route aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories. EFAS provides communications capabilities for aircraft flying at 5,000 feet AGL to 17,500 feet MSL on 122.0 MHz. Contact flight watch by using the name of the ARTCC facility serving the area .., followed by your aircraft identification, and the name of the nearest VOR.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-1-4
EFAS is a service specifically designed to provide en route aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories. EFAS provides communications capabilities for aircraft flying at 5,000 feet AGL to 17,500 feet MSL on 122.0 MHz. Contact flight watch by using the name of the ARTCC facility serving the area .., followed by your aircraft identification, and the name of the nearest VOR.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-4-6(b)
Pilots are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface of ... National Parks ... National Wildlife Refuges ... Wilderness and Primitive areas.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-4-6(b)
Pilots are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface of ... National Parks ... National Wildlife Refuges ... Wilderness and Primitive areas.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-5(b)(3)(e)
Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height, and atmospheric haze the illusion of being at a greater distance from the runway.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-2(a)(1)
Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the brain and other organs. Hypoxia from exposure to altitude is due only to the reduced barometric pressures encountered at altitude, for the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere remains about 21 percent from the ground out to space.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-6(c)(2)
Effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each movement should not exceed 10 degrees, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable detection.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-3(a)
Hyperventilation, or an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs, can occur subconsciously when a stressful situation is encountered in flight. As hyperventilation "blows off" excess carbon dioxide from the body, a pilot can experience symptoms of lightheadedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling in the extremities and coolness.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-6(c)(2)
Effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each movement should not exceed 10 degrees, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable detection.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-8(e)
Any aircraft that appears to have no relative motion and stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision course. Also, if a target shows no lateral or vertical motion, but increases in size, take evasive action.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-5(b)(1)
Various complex motions and forces and certain visual scenes encountered in flight can create illusions of motion and position. Spatial disorientation from these illusions can be prevented only by visual reference to reliable, fixed points on the ground or to flight instruments.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-5(b)(1)
Various complex motions and forces and certain visual scenes encountered in flight can create illusions of motion and position. Spatial disorientation from these illusions can be prevented only by visual reference to reliable, fixed points on the ground or to flight instruments.

Answer B is correct. Airport/Facility Directory, Legend 19
Remarks-Data is confined to operational items affecting the status and usability of the airport. Parachute Jumping - See "PARACHUTE" tabulation for details.

Answer B is correct. Terminal Area Chart, Legend
Also applicable to Class C airspace.

Answer A is correct. Other Documents, Legend 3-2-6(e)(5)
Federal Airways: The Federal airways are Class E airspace areas and, unless otherwise specified, extend upward from 1,200 feet to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.

Answer C is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer A is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer A is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer C is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer B is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer C is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer C is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend
FAR 91.119(b) Over any congested area... an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.

Answer C is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer C is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer B is correct. Other Documents, Legend 3-2-4(d)(2)
Class C Equipment:(a) Two-way radio, and (b) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, an operable radar beacon transponder with automatic altitude reporting equipment.

Answer B is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer C is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer B is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend
FAR 91.119(b) Over any congested area... an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.

Answer C is correct. Other Documents, Table 3-1-1
Class E Less than 10,000 feet MSL: 3 statute miles; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.

Answer A is correct. Other Documents, Table 3-1-1
Class G 1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude). Day: 1 statute mile, Clear of clouds.

Answer B is correct. ADDITIONAL ADVISORY CIRCULARS, Section 5
These publications are for sale by the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office.

Answer B is correct. ADDITIONAL ADVISORY CIRCULARS, Section APPENDIX 2
NumberSubject
60AIRMEN
70AIRSPACE
90AIR TRAFFIC AND GENERAL OPERATING RULES

Answer A is correct. ADDITIONAL ADVISORY CIRCULARS, Section APPENDIX 2
NumberSubject
60AIRMEN
70AIRSPACE
90AIR TRAFFIC AND GENERAL OPERATING RULES

Answer C is correct. ADDITIONAL ADVISORY CIRCULARS, Section APPENDIX 2
NumberSubject
60AIRMEN
70AIRSPACE
90AIR TRAFFIC AND GENERAL OPERATING RULES

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 2-7
If maximum distance over the ground is desired, the airspeed for best L/D should be used. When gliding into a headwind, distance will be achieved by adding approximately one-half of the estimated headwind velocity to the best L/D speed.

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Figure 2-8
3600 SPH / V-MPH = SPM
SPM x VS FPS = Ft-Alt-Loss/Mile

SPH=sec/hr SPM=sec/mile


Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Figure 2-8

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Figure 2-7

Answer C is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Figure 2-8
3600 SPH / V-MPH = SPM
SPM x VS FPS = Ft-Alt-Loss/Mile

SPH=sec/hr SPM=sec/mile


Answer A is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 9-9
To set up miles traveled versus feet of altitude lost, set the speed index under the known glide ratio. With this ratio set on the computer, any distance on the outer scale can be related to altitude loss on the inner scale.

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 9-9
To set up miles traveled versus feet of altitude lost, set the speed index under the known glide ratio. With this ratio set on the computer, any distance on the outer scale can be related to altitude loss on the inner scale.

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 9-9
To set up miles traveled versus feet of altitude lost, set the speed index under the known glide ratio. With this ratio set on the computer, any distance on the outer scale can be related to altitude loss on the inner scale.

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 9-9
To set up miles traveled versus feet of altitude lost, set the speed index under the known glide ratio. With this ratio set on the computer, any distance on the outer scale can be related to altitude loss on the inner scale.

Answer C is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 9-9
To set up miles traveled versus feet of altitude lost, set the speed index under the known glide ratio. With this ratio set on the computer, any distance on the outer scale can be related to altitude loss on the inner scale.

Answer C is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 13-14
PORPOISING - The recommended corrective action is to release some back pressure to reduce the climb angle until the oscillations stop, and then resume a shallower climb.

Answer A is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 13-5
The distinct advantage of a CG hitch is that the sailplane can gain a greater altitude with a given line length. The CG hitch also reduces the pitch-up tendency should the cable or a safety link break.

Answer A is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 2-7
If maximum distance over the ground is desired, the airspeed for best L/D should be used. When gliding into a headwind, distance will be achieved by adding approximately one-half of the estimated headwind velocity to the best L/D speed.

Answer C is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 9-9
To set up miles traveled versus feet of altitude lost, set the speed index under the known glide ratio. With this ratio set on the computer, any distance on the outer scale can be related to altitude loss on the inner scale.


© 2005 Jim D. Burch 602-942-2734 jdburch@att.net