Answer A is Incorrect, Try Again


Answer B is Incorrect, Try Again


Answer C is Incorrect, Try Again


Answer C is correct. Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations, Section 1.1
Commercial operator means a person who, for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.

Answer C is correct. Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations, Section 1.1
Operate, with respect to aircraft, means use, cause to use or authorize to use aircraft, for the purpose of air navigation, including the piloting of aircraft.

Answer C is correct. Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations, Section 1.1
Operational control, with respect to flight, means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating flight.

Answer B is correct. Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations, Section 1.2
VNE means never-exceed speed.

Answer B is correct. Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations, Section 1.2
VNO means maximum structural cruising speed.

Answer A is correct. Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations, Section 1.2
VF means design flap speed.

Answer B is correct. Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations, Section 1.2
VS1 means the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specific configuration.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.5(b)
(2) Airplane class ratings-- (i) Single-engine land. (ii) Multiengine land. (iii) Single-engine sea. (iv) Multiengine sea. (3) Rotorcraft class ratings-- (i) Helicopter. (ii) Gyroplane. (4) Lighter-than-air class ratings-- (i) Airship. (ii) Balloon.

Answer A is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.60
The holder of a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the certificate unless the holder has notified in writing the FAA.

Answer A is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.15(b)
Committing an act prohibited by Sec. 91.17(a) or Sec. 91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for a certificate, rating, or authorization for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.15(a)
A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs is grounds for: (1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or (2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.15(e)
Each person holding a certificate issued under this part shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division, not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.51(a)
Each person must document and record the following time in a manner acceptable to the Administrator: (1) Training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review of this part. (2) The aeronautical experience required for meeting the recent flight experience requirements of this part.

Answer A is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.31(c)
Unless a person holds a category, class, and type rating that applies to the aircraft, that person may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying another person, or is operated for compensation or hire.

Answer B is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.3(a)(c)
(a) Pilot certificate. A person may not act as pilot in command ..., unless that person has a valid pilot certificate ... in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate. (c) Medical certificate. (2) A person is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section if that person-- (i) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a pilot certificate with a glider category rating; (iii) Is holding a pilot certificate or a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating, and is piloting or providing training in a glider.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.3(a)(c)
(a) Pilot certificate. A person may not act as pilot in command ..., unless that person has a valid pilot certificate ... in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate. (c) Medical certificate. (2) A person is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section if that person-- (i) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a pilot certificate with a glider category rating; (iii) Is holding a pilot certificate or a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating, and is piloting or providing training in a glider.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.56(c)(d)(e)
... no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless, since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which that pilot acts as pilot in command, that person has-- Accomplished a flight review given in an aircraft for which that pilot is rated by an authorized instructor;... passed a pilot proficiency check conducted by an examiner, an approved pilot check airman, or a U.S. Armed Force, for a pilot certificate, rating, or operating privilege; ... satisfactorily accomplished one or more phases of an FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency award program.

Answer A is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.19(c)
A pilot certificate (other than a student pilot certificate) issued under this part is issued without a specific expiration date.

Answer A is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.31(j)(1)(iii)
No person may act as pilot in command of a glider-- Using self-launch procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on self-launch procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in self-launch procedures and operations.

Answer B is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.133(a)(1)(i)
A person who holds a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft-- Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in accordance with this part and with the applicable parts of this chapter that apply to the operation.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.133(a)(1)(ii)
A person who holds a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft-- For compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in accordance with this part and with the applicable parts of this chapter that apply to the operation.

Answer B is correct. Part 71 Designation of Airspace, Section 71.75(c)(1)
Each Federal airway includes that airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface of the earth to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL, except that Federal airways for Hawaii have no upper limits.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.15
No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.3(c)
Each pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph (b) of this section shall, upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.3(a)
The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.126(b)
When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace-- Each pilot of an airplane must make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.131(a)
No person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area except ... The operator must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area before operating an aircraft in that area.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.131(b)(1)
No person may take off or land a civil aircraft at an airport within a Class B airspace area or operate a civil aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless-- The pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate; or ... a student pilot or recreational pilot who ... has met the requirements of Sec. 61.95 of this chapter.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.127(c)
... no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.105(a)(b)
During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall-- Keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. ... Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.111
No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.113(g)
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.121(a)(2)
Each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising altitude ... by reference to an altimeter that is set, when operating-- At or above 18,000 feet MSL, to 29.92'' Hg.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.111
No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.155(a)
Basic VFR weather minimums. Class G: (>1,200 ft AGL and at or above 10,000 ft MSL) - 5 statute miles; 1,000 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 1 statute mile horizontal.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.155(a)
Basic VFR weather minimums. Class C; D; and E (<10,000 ft MSL) - 3 statute miles; 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 2,000 feet horizontal.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.105(a)(b)
During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall-- Keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. ... Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.123(a)
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, an emergency exists, or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.155(a)
Basic VFR weather minimums. Class G: (>1,200 ft AGL and at or above 10,000 ft MSL) - 5 statute miles; 1,000 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 1 statute mile horizontal.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.129(c)(1)
Each person operating an aircraft in Class D airspace must ... establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.111
No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.135(c)
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within Class A airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with the applicable equipment specified in Sec. 91.215 (transponder having 4096 code capability and Mode C pressure altitude reporting capability).

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.135
Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must conduct that operation under instrument flight rules (IFR)

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.209(a)
No person may: During the period from sunset to sunrise (or, in Alaska, during the period a prominent unlighted object cannot be seen from a distance of 3 statute miles or the sun is more than 6 degrees below the horizon)-- Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.211(a)
No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry-- At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the ... flight crew ... uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight ... that is of more than 30 minutes duration; At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the ... flight crew ... uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight ... ; and At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet (MSL) unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.205(b)
If the aircraft is operated for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from shore, approved flotation gear readily available to each occupant and at least one pyrotechnic signaling device.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.211(a)
No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry-- At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the ... flight crew ... uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight ... that is of more than 30 minutes duration; At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the ... flight crew ... uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight ... ; and At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet (MSL) unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.303
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight-- Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement; Over an open air assembly of persons; Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport; Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal airway; Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.315
No person may operate a limited category civil aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.309(a)
No person may operate a civil aircraft towing a glider unless-- ... The towline used has breaking strength not less than 80 percent of the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider and not more than twice this ... weight. However, the towline used may have a breaking strength more than twice the ... weight of the glider if-- A safety link is installed at ... the glider with a breaking strength not less than 80 percent ... and not greater than twice this weight. (and) A safety link is installed at ... the towing aircraft with a breaking strength greater, but not more than 25 percent greater, than that of the safety link at the towed glider end of the towline and not greater than twice the ... (glider weight).

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.309(a)
No person may operate a civil aircraft towing a glider unless-- ... The towline used has breaking strength not less than 80 percent of the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider and not more than twice this ... weight. However, the towline used may have a breaking strength more than twice the ... weight of the glider if-- A safety link is installed at ... the glider with a breaking strength not less than 80 percent ... and not greater than twice this weight. (and) A safety link is installed at ... the towing aircraft with a breaking strength greater, but not more than 25 percent greater, than that of the safety link at the towed glider end of the towline and not greater than twice the ... (glider weight).

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.319(a)
No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate-- For other than the purpose for which the certificate was issued; or Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.409(a)
No inspection performed under paragraph (b)(100 hour inspections) of this section may be substituted for any inspection required by this paragraph (annual inspections) unless it is performed by a person authorized to perform annual inspections and is entered as an "annual" inspection in the required maintenance records.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.403(a)
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with part 39 (Airworthiness Directives) of this chapter.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.403(a)
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with part 39 (Airworthiness Directives) of this chapter.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.409(a)
No inspection performed under paragraph (b)(100 hour inspections) of this section may be substituted for any inspection required by this paragraph (annual inspections) unless it is performed by a person authorized to perform annual inspections and is entered as an "annual" inspection in the required maintenance records.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.405(a)
Each owner or operator of an aircraft-- Shall have that aircraft inspected as prescribed in subpart E of this part and shall between required inspections, have discrepancies repaired as prescribed in part 43 of this chapter.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.407(b)
No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until ... at least a private pilot ... flies the aircraft, makes an operational check ..., and logs the flight in the aircraft records.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.403(a)
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with part 39 (Airworthiness Directives) of this chapter.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.417(a)(1)
... each registered owner or operator shall keep ... Records of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration and records of the 100-hour, annual, progressive, and other required or approved inspections, as appropriate, for each aircraft.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.409(b)
... no person may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for hire, and no person may give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection ... The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.

Answer C is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.2
Substantial damage means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft.

Answer C is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.5(a)(b)
The operator of any civil aircraft ... shall immediately ... notify the nearest NTSB field office when: An aircraft accident or any of the following incidents occur: Flight control system malfunction or failure; Inability of ... flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties ...; In-flight fire; Aircraft collide in flight; Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 ...; An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

Answer B is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.5(a)(b)
The operator of any civil aircraft ... shall immediately ... notify the nearest NTSB field office when: An aircraft accident or any of the following incidents occur: Flight control system malfunction or failure; Inability of ... flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties ...; In-flight fire; Aircraft collide in flight; Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 ...; An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

Answer A is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.5(a)(b)
The operator of any civil aircraft ... shall immediately ... notify the nearest NTSB field office when: An aircraft accident or any of the following incidents occur: Flight control system malfunction or failure; Inability of ... flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties ...; In-flight fire; Aircraft collide in flight; Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 ...; An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

Answer A is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.5(a)(b)
The operator of any civil aircraft ... shall immediately ... notify the nearest NTSB field office when: An aircraft accident or any of the following incidents occur: Flight control system malfunction or failure; Inability of ... flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties ...; In-flight fire; Aircraft collide in flight; Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 ...; An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

Answer A is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.5(a)(b)
The operator of any civil aircraft ... shall immediately ... notify the nearest NTSB field office when: An aircraft accident or any of the following incidents occur: Flight control system malfunction or failure; Inability of ... flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties ...; In-flight fire; Aircraft collide in flight; Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 ...; An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

Answer C is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.15(a)
The operator of a civil ... aircraft shall file a report ... within 10 days after an accident, or after 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing. A report on an incident for which immediate notification is required ... shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the Board.

Answer C is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.15(a)
The operator of a civil ... aircraft shall file a report ... within 10 days after an accident, or after 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing. A report on an incident for which immediate notification is required ... shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the Board.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 2-2
Spoilers extend from the upper surface of the wing interrupting or spoiling the airflow over the wings

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 3-12
If airspeed increases and the angle of bank remains the same, the rate of turn will decrease. Conversely, a constant airspeed coupled with an angle of bank increase will result in a faster rate of turn. The radius of turn at any given bank angle varies directly with the square of the airspeed... if the angle of bank increases and the airspeed remains the same, the radius of turn is decreased.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 4-3
MANEUVERING SPEED is the maximum speed at which the limit load can be imposed (either by gusts or full deflection of the control surfaces) without causing structural damage.

Answer C is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 3-10
An advantage of the electric variometer is that its sensitivity can be adjusted in flight to suit existing air conditions.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 4-8
A variometer with a total energy system senses changes in airspeed and tends to cancel out the resulting climb and dive indications (stick thermals).

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 4-8
A variometer with a total energy system senses changes in airspeed and tends to cancel out the resulting climb and dive indications (stick thermals).

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 4-13
When on an east or west heading, no error is apparent while entering a turn to north or south. However, an increase in airspeed or acceleration will cause the compass to indicate a turn toward north; a decrease will cause the compass to indicate a turn toward south.

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 2-2
The all-important L/D, or glide ratio, never changes in relation to the airmass, because L/D is determined by the design of the sailplane. Glide angle with respect to the ground, however, reflects the direction and velocity of the airmass in which the sailplane flies.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Glossary 4
The glider will lose the least amount of altitude per unit of time at minimum sink airspeed.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 5-8
..flying a faster airspeed as the headwind increases will result in the greatest distance over the ground...add half the headwind component to the best L/D for the maximum distance.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 5-8
..flying a faster airspeed as the headwind increases will result in the greatest distance over the ground...add half the headwind component to the best L/D for the maximum distance.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 5-8
..flying a faster airspeed as the headwind increases will result in the greatest distance over the ground...add half the headwind component to the best L/D for the maximum distance.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 5-8
..flying a faster airspeed as the headwind increases will result in the greatest distance over the ground...add half the headwind component to the best L/D for the maximum distance.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-21, Flight Training Handbook, Page 303
The recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes progressively more difficult as its center of gravity moves aft. This is particularly important in spin recovery, as there is a point in rearward loading of any airplane at which a "flat" spin will develop.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 5-8
With ballast... the best glide ratio is the same but it occurs at a faster speed. Ballast should be used under stronger thermal conditions for better speed between thermals.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 5-8
With ballast... the best glide ratio is the same but it occurs at a faster speed. Ballast should be used under stronger thermal conditions for better speed between thermals.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 6-1
In order to ensure correct and safe procedures for assembly of a glider, students and pilots should seek instruction from a knowledgeable glider flight instructor or certificated private or higher glider pilot.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 7-4
Prior to the towplane becoming airborne and after the glider lifts off, the glider pilot should turn into the wind and establish a wind correction angle to remain behind the towplane.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 7-6
...the danger of fouling from a towrope failure or inadvertent release is greater when flying in the low tow position.

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 12-14
The primary cause of slack line is acceleration.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 7-15
When optimum pitch attitude for climb is attained, the glider should be approximately 200 feet above ground level.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook, Page 2-1
When the datum is ahead of the aircraft, all the arms are positive and computational errors are minimized.

Answer C is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 13-8
If a crosswind is present, the towline should be laid out downwind of the car.

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 13-14
Porpoising, or rapid pitch oscillation may occur as the sailplane approaches the top of the climb. This phenomenon occurs as a result of the horizontal stabilizer stalling and unstalling in combination with the downward pull of the tow cable.

Answer C is correct. Joy of Soaring, Page 39
In the event of a rope break, the critical factor is airspeed. If this is up to normal when the rope breaks, and the stick is slammed fully forward instantly at the crack of the breaking line, the glider will come to a normal gliding attitude while still above best glide speed.

Answer A is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 14-11
The calm wind approach speed is usually equal to 1-1/2 times the stall speed. One half of the estimated wind speed is added to compensate for the tendency to lose airspeed as wind velocity decreases near the surface.

Answer C is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 14-15
Should the sailplane balloon, the dive brakes should be closed and a new landing initiated. The sailplane will continue to float in ground effect after the flare. The dive brakes or spoilers should be partially opened, while maintaining a slight nose-high pitch attitude.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 8-8
If the terrain below is suitable for landing, select a general area no lower than 2,000 feet AGL. Select the intended landing field no lower than 1,500 feet AGL.

Answer C is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 10-4
Although it (bailout bottle) is designed for use during a parachute descent from high altitude, it also serves as an emergency oxygen supply, should the main system malfunction or become prematurely exhausted.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 9-9
Larger negative numbers favor stronger conditions, while values of 0 to -2 may produce few or no thermals.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 9-9
Larger negative numbers favor stronger conditions, while values of 0 to -2 may produce few or no thermals.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 9-11
The best air masses for thermals are those with cool air aloft, with conditions dry enough to allow the sun's heating at the surface...these conditions are usually found after the passage of a cold front.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook, Page 2-3
Determine the CG by dividing the total moment by the total weight.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook, Page 2-3
Determine the CG by dividing the total moment by the total weight.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook, Page 2-3
Determine the CG by dividing the total moment by the total weight.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook, Page 2-3
Determine the CG by dividing the total moment by the total weight.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 9-22
The weather requirements for wave soaring include sufficient wind and a proper stability profile. Wind speed should be at least 15 to 20 knots at mountaintop level with increasing winds above.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 10-7
The first glider in a thermal establishes the direction of turn and all other gliders joining the thermal should turn in the same direction.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 9-19
Just as the flow is deflected upward on the windward side of a ridge, it is deflected downward on the lee side...up to 2,000 fpm or more.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook, Page 5-3
The weight and balance revision sheet should clearly show the revised empty weight, empty weight arm and/or moment index, and the new useful load.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-1
Lift opposes the downward force of weight, is produced by the dynamic effect of the air acting on the wing, and acts perpendicular to the flightpath through the wing's center of lift.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-26-28
A load factor is the ratio of the total airload acting on the airplane to the gross weight of the airplane...The airplane's stalling speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23, Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-18
In any airplane at any speed, if a constant altitude is maintained during the turn, the load factor for a given degree of bank is the same. For any given angle of bank, the rate of turn varies with the airspeed.. The load factor remains the same.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 6-7
Some important airspeed limitations are not marked on the face of the airspeed indicator. Design maneuvering speed (VA)-This is the "rough air" speed and maximum speed for abrupt maneuvers. If during flight, rough air or severe turbulence is encountered, reduce the airspeed to maneuvering speed or less to minimize stress on the airplane structure.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 6-7
Upper limit of green arc (VNO)-The maximum structural cruising speed. Do not exceed this speed except in smooth air.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 6-7
White arc - This arc is commonly referred to as the flap operating range since its lower limit represents the full flap stall speed and its upper limit provides the maximum flap speed.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 6-7
Some important airspeed limitations are not marked on the face of the airspeed indicator. Design maneuvering speed (VA)-This is the "rough air" speed and maximum speed for abrupt maneuvers. If during flight, rough air or severe turbulence is encountered, reduce the airspeed to maneuvering speed or less to minimize stress on the airplane structure.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 6-4
Pressure Altitude - The altitude indicated when the altimeter setting window (barometric scale) is adjusted to 29.92.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 6-16
In the Northern Hemisphere, the compass swings towards the north during acceleration, and towards the south during deceleration.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 10-13
When lifted, unsaturated air cools at a rate of 5.4oF per 1,000 feet and the dewpoint temperature decreases at a rate of 1oF per 1,000 feet. This results in a convergence of temperature and dewpoint at a rate of 4.4oF.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 10-6
In the Northern Hemisphere, this flow of air from areas of high to low pressure is deflected to the right: producing a clockwise circulation around an area of high pressure...also known as anti-cyclonic circulation. The opposite is true of low-pressure areas; the air flows toward a low and is deflected to create a counter-clockwise or cyclonic circulation.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 10-6
The Coriolis force deflects air to the right in the Northern Hemisphere, causing it to follow a curved path instead of a straight line.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 10-6
High-pressure systems are generally areas of dry, stable, descending air. Good weather is typically associated with high-pressure systems for this reason. Conversely, air flows into a low-pressure area to replace rising air...bad weather is commonly associated with areas of low pressure.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6, Aviation Weather, Page 111
For a thunderstorm to form, the air must have (1) sufficient water vapor, (2) an unstable lapse rate, and (3) an initial boost (lifting) to start the storm process in motion.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 11-9
The forecast visibility is given in statute miles and may be in whole numbers or fractions. If the forecast is greater than 6 miles, it will be coded as "P6SM."

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 11-3
The common EFAS frequency, 122.0 MHz, is established for pilots of aircraft flying between 5,000 feet AGL and 17,500 feet MSL.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45, Aviation Weather Services, Page 2-9
BR is used to indicate mist restricting visibility and is used only when the visibility is from 5/8 mile to 6 miles. FG is used to indicate fog restricting visibility and is used only when visibility is less than 5/8 mile.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 11-9
Each TAF is valid for a 24-hour time period, and is updated four times a day at 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, and 1800Z.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 11-5
Winds are reported with five digits (14021) unless the speed is greater than 99 knots...The first three digits indicate the direction...If the wind is variable, it is reported as "VRB." The last two (or three) digits indicate the speed of the wind in knots.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-3
Because meridians converge toward the poles, course measurement should be taken at a meridian near the midpoint of the course rather than at the point of departure. The course measured on the chart is known as the true course. This is the direction measured by reference to a meridian or true north.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Figure 14-18

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-23
Magnetic Bearing - "TO" the station is the angle formed by a line drawn from the aircraft to the station and a line drawn from the aircraft to magnetic north. The magnetic bearing to the station can be determined by adding the relative bearing to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-21
When navigating to a station, determine the inbound radial and use this radial. ...If this is not done, the action of the course deviation needle will be reversed.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-21
When navigating to a station, determine the inbound radial and use this radial. ...If this is not done, the action of the course deviation needle will be reversed.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 9
This decrease of temperature with altitude is defined as lapse rate. The average decrease of temperature - average lapse rate - in the troposphere is 2 degrees C per 1,000 feet.

Answer A is correct. Multiple Sources,
Weather involves movement of air and changes of state of water. Air movement ultimately can be traced to heating from the sun. Changes of state of water (evaporation, condensation, melting, freezing, and sublimation) all involve adding or releasing heat.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 9
An inversion often develops near the ground on clear, cool nights when wind is light. The ground radiates and cools much faster than the overlying air.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 10
The Standard Atmosphere: Mean Sea Level - Pressure 29.92 in. Hg or 1013.2 millibars; Temperature 15.0oC or 59oF.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 21
To compute density altitude, set your altimeter at 29.92 inches or 1013.2 millibars and read pressure altitude from your altimeter. Read outside air temperature and then use your flight computer to get density altitude.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 26
The instant air begins moving, Coriolis force deflects it to the right. Soon the wind is deflected a full 90 degrees and is parallel to the isobars or contours. At this time, Coriolis force exactly balances pressure gradient force.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 35
A low or trough is an area of rising air. Rising air is conducive to cloudiness and precipitation; thus we have the general association of low pressure - bad weather.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 25
The Coriolis force affects the paths of aircraft; missiles; flying birds; ocean currents; and, most important to the study of weather, air currents. The force deflects air to the right in the Northern Hemisphere, and to the left in the Southern hemisphere.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 24
The closer the spacing of isobars, the stronger is the pressure gradient force. The stronger the pressure gradient force, the stronger is the wind.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 29
As winds try to blow inward toward the center of low pressure, they are also deflected to the right. Thus, the wind around a low is counterclockwise. The low pressure and its wind system is a cyclone.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 23
Differences in temperature create differences in pressure. These pressure differences drive a complex system of winds in a never ending attempt to reach equilibrium.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 72
Shallow frontal surfaces tend to give extensive cloudiness with large precipitation areas. If temperature of the cold air near the surface is below freezing, precipitation falls as freezing rain or ice pellets.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 39
Some rain may reach the ground or it may evaporate as it falls into drier air. "Virga" - streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds but evaporating before reaching the ground.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 39
Evaporation, condensation, sublimation, freezing, and melting are changes of state. Evaporation is the changing of liquid water to invisible water vapor. Condensation is the reverse process. Sublimation is the changing of ice directly to water vapor, or water vapor to ice, bypassing the liquid state in each process.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 43
Ice pellets always indicate freezing rain at higher altitude.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 38
The difference between air temperature and dew point temperature is popularly called the "spread." As spread becomes less, relative humidity increases, and it is 100% when temperature and dew point are the same.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 51
In a convective current, temperature and dew point converge at about 4.4 degrees F (2.5 degrees C) per 1,000 feet.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 50
Since stable air resists convection, clouds in stable air form in horizontal, sheet-like layers or "strata." Thus, within a stable layer, clouds are stratiform. Adiabatic cooling may be by upslope flow; by lifting over cold, more dense air; or by converging winds.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 50
Whether the air is stable or unstable within a layer largely determines cloud structure.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 50
Whether the air is stable or unstable within a layer largely determines cloud structure.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
For a thunderstorm to form, the air must have (1) sufficient water vapor, (2) an unstable lapse rate, and (3) an initial boost (lifting) to start the storm process in motion.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 64
Stable Air: Stratiform clouds and fog; Continuous precipitation; Smooth air; Fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 42
A mass of air in which the temperature decreases rapidly with height favors instability; but, air tends to be stable if the temperature changes little or not at all with altitude.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 49
Surface heating or cooling aloft can make the air more unstable; on the other hand, surface cooling or warming aloft often tips the balance toward greater stability.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 49
Surface heating or cooling aloft can make the air more unstable; on the other hand, surface cooling or warming aloft often tips the balance toward greater stability.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 56
Towering cumulus signifies a relatively deep layer of unstable air. Showers can result from these clouds. Very strong turbulence; some clear icing above the freezing level.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 51
Standing lenticular altocumulus clouds are formed on the crests of waves created by barriers to wind flow. The presence of these clouds is a good indication of very strong turbulence and should be avoided.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 50
Since stable air resists convection, clouds in stable air form in horizontal, sheet-like layers or "strata." Thus, within a stable layer, clouds are stratiform. Adiabatic cooling may be by upslope flow; by lifting over cold, more dense air; or by converging winds.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 64
Cool air moving over a warm surface is heated from below, generating instability.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 64
Unstable Air: Cumuliform clouds; Showery precipitation; Rough air (turbulence); Good visibility, except in blowing obstructions.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 64
In the cold front occlusion, the coldest air is under the cold front. When it overtakes the warm front, it lifts the warm front aloft; and the cold air replaces cool air at the surface.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 86
Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. Three conditions are of special interest - (1) wind shear with a low-level temperature inversion, (2) wind shear in a frontal zone, and (3) clear air turbulence (CAT) at high levels associated with a jet stream or strong circulation.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 86
When approaching mountains from the leeward side during strong winds, ... Climb to an altitude of 3,000 to 5,000 feet above the mountain tops before attempting to cross. The best procedure is to approach a ridge at a 45 degree angle to enable a rapid retreat to calmer air.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 200
Turbulence is most frequent and most severe in the standing rotors just beneath the wave crests at or below the mountain-top levels.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 86
Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. Three conditions are of special interest - (1) wind shear with a low-level temperature inversion, (2) wind shear in a frontal zone, and (3) clear air turbulence (CAT) at high levels associated with a jet stream or strong circulation.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 81
Convective currents are most active on warm summer afternoons when winds are light.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 100
A condition favorable for rapid accumulation of clear icing is freezing rain below a frontal surface. Rain forms above the frontal surface at temperatures warmer than freezing. Subsequently, it falls through air at temperatures below freezing and becomes supercooled. The supercooled drops freeze on impact with an aircraft surface.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 114
A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often it develops ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may develop in unstable air far removed from any front. It often contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to aircraft.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 115
Outside the cloud, shear turbulence has been encountered several thousand feet above and 20 miles laterally from a severe storm. A low level turbulent area is the shear zone between the plow wind and surrounding air.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 114
A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often it develops ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may develop in unstable air far removed from any front. It often contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to aircraft.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloud base is your signal that a downdraft has developed and a cell has entered the mature stage.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 115
The roll cloud is most prevalent with cold frontal or squall line thunderstorms and signifies an extremely turbulent zone.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
The key feature of the cumulus stage is an updraft.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloud base is your signal that a downdraft has developed and a cell has entered the mature stage.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 115
You should anticipate possible hail with any thunderstorm, especially beneath the anvil of a large cumulonimbus.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 115
Hail has been observed in clear air several miles from the parent thunderstorm.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
Downdrafts characterize the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm cell and the storm dies rapidly.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 127
Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is common along coastal areas... Wind much stronger than 15 knots lifts the fog into a layer of low stratus or stratocumulus. This fog frequently forms offshore as a result of cold water and then is carried inland by the wind.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 127
Advection fog is usually more extensive and much more persistent than radiation fog. Advection fog can move in rapidly regardless of the time of day or night.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 127
Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is common along coastal areas... Wind much stronger than 15 knots lifts the fog into a layer of low stratus or stratocumulus. This fog frequently forms offshore as a result of cold water and then is carried inland by the wind.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 127
Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is common along coastal areas... Wind much stronger than 15 knots lifts the fog into a layer of low stratus or stratocumulus. This fog frequently forms offshore as a result of cold water and then is carried inland by the wind.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 128
When relatively warm rain or drizzle falls through cool air, evaporation from the precipitation saturates the cool air and forms fog. It is most commonly associated with warm fronts, but can occur with slow moving cold fronts and with stationary fronts.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 128
When relatively warm rain or drizzle falls through cool air, evaporation from the precipitation saturates the cool air and forms fog. It is most commonly associated with warm fronts, but can occur with slow moving cold fronts and with stationary fronts.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 136
An abrupt change in temperature lapse rate characterizes the tropopause.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 161
If thermals are to develop, the lapse rate must become equal to or greater than the dry adiabatic rate of cooling - that is, the line representing the lapse rate must slope parallel to or slope more than the dry adiabats.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 161
If thermals are to develop, the lapse rate must become equal to or greater than the dry adiabatic rate of cooling - that is, the line representing the lapse rate must slope parallel to or slope more than the dry adiabats.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 86
When approaching mountains from the leeward side during strong winds, ... Climb to an altitude of 3,000 to 5,000 feet above the mountain tops before attempting to cross. The best procedure is to approach a ridge at a 45 degree angle to enable a rapid retreat to calmer air.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 173
Cool air must sink to force warm air upward in thermals. Therefore, thermals and downdrafts coexist side by side. The net upward displacement of air must equal the net downward displacement. Fast rising thermals generally cover a small percentage of a convective area while slower downdrafts predominate over the remaining greater portion.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 191
Caused by the heating of land on warm, sunny days, the sea breeze usually begins during early forenoon, reaches a maximum during the afternoon, and subsides around dusk after the land has cooled. The leading edge of the cool sea breeze forces warmer air inland to rise.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 179
A surface wind in excess of 10 knots usually means stronger winds aloft resulting in vertical wind shear. This shear causes thermals to lean noticeably.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 173
Cool air must sink to force warm air upward in thermals. Therefore, thermals and downdrafts coexist side by side. The net upward displacement of air must equal the net downward displacement. Fast rising thermals generally cover a small percentage of a convective area while slower downdrafts predominate over the remaining greater portion.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 173
Cool air must sink to force warm air upward in thermals. Therefore, thermals and downdrafts coexist side by side. The net upward displacement of air must equal the net downward displacement. Fast rising thermals generally cover a small percentage of a convective area while slower downdrafts predominate over the remaining greater portion.

Answer B is correct. Aeronautical Information Manual, Section 7-1-9(b)
HIWAS: This is a continuous broadcast of inflight weather advisories including summarized AWW, SIGMET's, Convective SIGMET's, CWA's, AIRMET's, and urgent PIREP's.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-23
A SIGMET advises of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft... SIGMETs are issued when the following occur or are expected to occur: 1. Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms; 2. Severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms; 3. Duststorms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash lowering ... visibilities to below three miles; 4. Volcanic ash.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-26
Convective SIGMETs are issued for any of the following: 1. Severe thunderstorm due to: a. surface winds >= 50 knots; b. hail at the surface >= 3/4 inches in diameter; c. tornadoes; 2. Embedded thunderstorms; 3. A line of thunderstorms; 4. Thunderstorms >= VIP level 4 affecting 40% or more of an area at least 3000 square miles.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 5-1
Isobars are solid lines depicting the sea level pressure pattern and are usually spaced at intervals of 4 millibar (mb).

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 5-2
The surface analysis chart provides a ready means of locating pressure systems and fronts. It also gives an overview of winds, temperatures, and dew point temperatures at chart time.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 6-2
Cloud height above ground level (AGL) is entered under the station circle in hundreds of feet. If total sky cover at a station is scattered, the cloud height entered is the base of the lowest scattered cloud layer. If total sky cover is broken or greater at a station, the cloud height entered is the lowest broken or overcast cloud layer. A totally obscured sky is shown by the sky cover symbol "X" and is accompanied by the height entry of the vertical visibility into the obscuration. A partially obscured sky with clouds above will have a cloud height entry for the cloud layer.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 7-1
This chart displays areas of precipitation as well as information about type, intensity, configuration, coverage, echo top, and cell movement of precipitation. Severe weather watches are plotted if they are in effect when the chart is valid.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-35
A six-digit group shows wind direction, in reference to true north, wind speed in knots, and temperature in degrees Celsius. If a wind direction is coded between 51 and 86, subtract 50 from the wind direction and add 100 knots to the wind speed. When the forecast speed is less than 5 knots, the coded group is "9900" and read, "LIGHT AND VARIABLE."

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 11-1
Significant weather prognostic charts (progs) portray forecasts of selected weather conditions at specified valid times. Each valid time is the time at which the forecast conditions are expected to occur.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 11-1
The low-level significant weather prog chart is a day 1 forecast of significant weather for the conterminous United States. Weather information provided pertains to the layer from surface to FL240 (400 mbs.)

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 1-1-4(b)
To use the VOT service, tune in the VOT frequency on your VOR receiver. With the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) centered, the omni-bearing selector should read 0 degrees with the to/from indication showing "from" or the omni-bearing selector should read 180 degrees with the to/from indication showing "to."

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-8(b)(4)
No Entry Sign: This sign prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. Typically, this sign would be located on a taxiway intended to be used in only one direction or at the intersection of vehicle roadways with runways, taxiways or aprons where the roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-9(a)(3)
Runway Boundary Sign: This sign has a yellow background with a black inscription with a graphic depicting the pavement holding position marking... The sign is intended to provide pilots with another visual clue which they can use as a guide in deciding when they are "clear of the runway."

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 1-1-17
VHF Direction Finder: The equipment consists of a directional antenna system and a VHF radio receiver. The VHF/DF receiver display indicates the magnetic direction of the aircraft from the ground station each time the aircraft transmits.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-1-5(h)
AIRMET's (WA's) may be of significance to any pilot or aircraft operator and are issued for all domestic airspace ... for the following weather phenomena which are potentially hazardous to aircraft: 1. Moderate icing. 2. Moderate turbulence. 3. Sustained winds of 30 knots or more at the surface. 4. Widespread area of ceilings less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than three miles. 5. Extensive mountain obscurement.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-1-9(a)
Weather Advisory Broadcasts: ARTCC's broadcast a Severe Weather Forecast Alert (AWW), Convective SIGMET, SIGMET, or CWA alert once on all frequencies, except emergency, when any part of the area described is within 150 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45, Aviation Weather Services, Page 2-11
For aviation purposes, the ceiling is defined as the height (AGL) of the lowest broken or overcast layer aloft or vertical visibility into an obscuration.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-1-29(b)(5)(b)
Whenever a wind shift occurs, "WSHFT" will be included in remarks followed by the time the wind shift began, e.g., WSHFT 30 FROPA "Wind shift at three zero due to frontal passage."

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-1-7(a)
TIBS, provided by automated flight service stations (AFSS's) is a continuous recording of meteorological and aeronautical information, available by telephone.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-1-8
TWEB: Generally, the broadcast contains route-oriented data with specially prepared NWS forecasts, Inflight Advisories, and winds aloft plus preselected current information, such as weather reports (METAR/SPECI), NOTAM's, and special notices.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-1-24(f)(2)
The LLWAS provides wind data and software processes to detect the presence of hazardous wind shear and microbursts in the vicinity of an airport.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-1-5(e)
SIGMET's (WS's) within the conterminous U.S. are issued by the Aviation Weather Center (AWC) when the following phenomena occur or are expected to occur: 1. Severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms. 2. Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms. 3. Duststorms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash lowering surface or inflight visibilities to below three miles. 4. Volcanic eruption.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-3-7
In forward flight, departing or landing helicopters produce a pair of strong, high-speed trailing vortices similar to wing tip vortices of larger fixed wing aircraft.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-3-6(b)(1)
Landing behind a larger aircraft - same runway: Stay at or above the larger aircraft's final approach flight path - note its touchdown point - land beyond it.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-3-6(b)(9)
Avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft's path.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-1(d)(1)
As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer or four ounces of wine can impair flying skills. Alcohol also renders a pilot more susceptible to disorientation and hypoxia.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-2(a)(1)
Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the brain and other organs. Hypoxia from exposure to altitude is due only to the reduced barometric pressures encountered at altitude, for the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere remains about 21 percent from the ground out to space.

Answer B is correct. Other Documents, Table 3-1-1
Class G 1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude). Day: 1 statute mile, Clear of clouds.

Answer B is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer C is correct. Other Documents, Legend 3-4-6
Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. All activity within an alert area shall be conducted in accordance with CFRs, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transiting the area shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance.

Answer C is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer C is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend
Airports having Control Towers are shown in Blue, all others in Magenta.

Answer B is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer B is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer A is correct. Other Documents, Legend 3-1-3(a)
When overlapping airspace designations apply to the same airspace, the operating rules associated with the more restrictive airspace designation apply.

Answer B is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer B is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer C is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend
FAR 91.119(b) Over any congested area... an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.

Answer C is correct. Other Documents, Legend 3-2-3(b)(6)
an aircraft that was not originally certificated with an engine-driven electrical system or which has not subsequently been certified with a system installed may conduct operations within a Mode C veil provided the aircraft remains outside Class A, B or C airspace; and below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower.

Answer C is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer B is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer B is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer B is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer C is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 16-d
HAZARDOUS ATTITUDE=Macho: I can do it. ANTIDOTE=Taking chances is foolish.

Answer C is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 13
ADM addresses the following five hazardous attitudes. Antiauthority; Impulsivity; Invulnerability; Macho; Resignation

Answer C is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 16-a
HAZARDOUS ATTITUDE=Antiauthority: Don't tell me. ANTIDOTE=Follow the rules. They are usually right.

Answer B is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 4-1
The basic drive to demonstrate the "right stuff" can have an adverse effect on safety and can impose an unrealistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions. These tendencies ultimately may lead to practices that are dangerous and often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.

Answer B is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 4-2
These dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns, which must be identified and eliminated, include: Peer Pressure; Mind Set; Get-There-Itis; Duck-Under Syndrome; Scud Running; Continuing visual flight rules (VFR) into instrument conditions; Getting Behind the Aircraft; Loss of Positional or Situation Awareness; Operating Without Adequate Fuel Reserves; Descent Below the Minimum Enroute Altitude; Flying Outside the Envelope; Neglect of Flight Planning, Preflight Inspections, Checklists, Etc.

Answer A is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 16
The basic definitions, the self-assessment test, the hazardous attitudes, and the antidotes represent the foundation for understanding the factors of good ADM.

Answer B is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 14-a
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. Recognition of hazardous thoughts is the first step in neutralizing them in the ADM process. This chapter is designed to familiarize the pilot with a means of counteracting hazardous attitudes with an appropriate antidote thought.

Answer A is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 2-a
Steps for good decision making are:(1) Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight. (2) Learning behavior modification techniques. (3) Learning how to recognize and cope with stress. (4) Developing risk assessment skills. (5) Using all resources in a multicrew situation. (6) Evaluating the effectiveness of one's ADM skills.

Answer C is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 4-1
The basic drive to demonstrate the "right stuff" can have an adverse effect on safety and can impose an unrealistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions. These tendencies ultimately may lead to practices that are dangerous and often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.

Answer C is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 23-b
1. Detect. The decision maker detects the fact that change has occurred. 2. Estimate. The decision maker estimates the need to counter or react to the change. 3. Choose. The decision maker chooses a desirable outcome (in terms of success) for the flight. 4. Identify. The decision maker identifies actions which could successfully control the change. 5. Do. The decision maker takes the necessary action. 6. Evaluate. The decision maker evaluates the effect(s) of his action countering the change.

Answer A is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 23-b
1. Detect. The decision maker detects the fact that change has occurred. 2. Estimate. The decision maker estimates the need to counter or react to the change. 3. Choose. The decision maker chooses a desirable outcome (in terms of success) for the flight. 4. Identify. The decision maker identifies actions which could successfully control the change. 5. Do. The decision maker takes the necessary action. 6. Evaluate. The decision maker evaluates the effect(s) of his action countering the change.

Answer B is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Definition a
ADM is a systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.

Answer B is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 23-b
1. Detect. The decision maker detects the fact that change has occurred. 2. Estimate. The decision maker estimates the need to counter or react to the change. 3. Choose. The decision maker chooses a desirable outcome (in terms of success) for the flight. 4. Identify. The decision maker identifies actions which could successfully control the change. 5. Do. The decision maker takes the necessary action. 6. Evaluate. The decision maker evaluates the effect(s) of his action countering the change.

Answer B is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 21-e
Good cockpit stress management begins with good life stress management. Many of the stress coping techniques practiced for life stress management are not usually practical in flight. Rather, you must condition yourself to relax and think rationally when stress appears.

Answer A is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 21-e
Good cockpit stress management begins with good life stress management. Many of the stress coping techniques practiced for life stress management are not usually practical in flight. Rather, you must condition yourself to relax and think rationally when stress appears.

Answer C is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 14-a
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. Recognition of hazardous thoughts is the first step in neutralizing them in the ADM process. This chapter is designed to familiarize the pilot with a means of counteracting hazardous attitudes with an appropriate antidote thought.

Answer C is correct. Aeronautical Information Manual, Section 8-1-8(e)
Any aircraft that appears to have no relative motion and stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision course. Also, if a target shows no lateral or vertical motion, but increases in size, take evasive action.


© 2005 Jim D. Burch 602-942-2734 jdburch@att.net