Answer A is Incorrect, Try Again


Answer B is Incorrect, Try Again


Answer C is Incorrect, Try Again


Answer C is correct. Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations, Section 1.1
Operational control, with respect to flight, means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating flight.

Answer A is correct. Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations, Section 1.1
Crewmember means a person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.

Answer A is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.56(a)(b)
... a flight review consists of a minimum of 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour of ground training. The review must include: (1) A review of the current general operating and flight rules of part 91 of this chapter; and (2) A review of those maneuvers and procedures that, at the discretion of the person giving the review, are necessary for the pilot to demonstrate the safe exercise of the privileges of the pilot certificate. (b) Glider pilots may substitute a minimum of three instructional flights in a glider, each of which includes a flight to traffic pattern altitude, in lieu of the 1 hour of flight training.

Answer A is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.35(a)
An applicant for a knowledge test must have: (1) Received an endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the applicant accomplished the appropriate ground training or a home-study course for the certificate or rating sought and is prepared for the knowledge test; and (2) Proper identification at the time of application.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.19(b)
Student pilot certificate. A student pilot certificate expires 24 calendar months from the month in which it is issued.

Answer A is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.37(c)
Any certificate or rating held by an applicant may be suspended or revoked if the Administrator finds that person has committed an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section.

Answer B is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.13(d)
...a person whose pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate has been suspended may not apply for any certificate, rating, or authorization during the period of suspension.

Answer A is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.49(a)
An applicant for a knowledge or practical test who fails that test may reapply for the test only after the applicant has received: The necessary training from an authorized instructor who has determined that the applicant is proficient to pass the test; and An endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave the applicant the additional training.

Answer B is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.51(a)
Each person must document and record the following time in a manner acceptable to the Administrator: (1) Training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review of this part. (2) The aeronautical experience required for meeting the recent flight experience requirements of this part.

Answer A is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.63(b)(5)
An applicant who holds a pilot certificate and applies to add a category rating to that pilot certificate:... Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating at that pilot certificate level.

Answer B is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.95(a)
A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight in Class B airspace unless: (1) The student pilot has received both ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on that Class B airspace area, ... (2) The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed by the authorized instructor who gave the student pilot flight training, and the endorsement is dated within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight in that Class B airspace area.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.87(b)(2)
The student's authorized instructor must-- Administer the test; and At the conclusion of the test, review all incorrect answers with the student before authorizing that student to conduct a solo flight.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.87(l)
A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student pilot has received: An endorsement from an authorized instructor on his or her student pilot certificate for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown; and An endorsement in the student's logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown ... within the 90 days preceding the date of the flight.

Answer B is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.93(c)
A student pilot must have a solo cross-country endorsement from the authorized instructor who conducted the training, ... on that person's student pilot certificate for the specific category of aircraft to be flown. ... For each cross-country flight, the authorized instructor who reviews the cross-country planning must make an endorsement in the person's logbook ... that the student's preflight planning and preparation is correct and that the student is prepared to make the flight safely.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.195(h)(2)
... a flight instructor who provides training to an initial applicant for a flight instructor certificate must-- Have held a flight instructor certificate for at least 24 months; For training in preparation for a glider rating, have given at least 80 hours of flight training as a flight instructor.

Answer C is correct. Part 61 Certification: Pilots & Instructors, Section 61.189(c)
Each flight instructor must retain the records required by this section for at least 3 years.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.9(b)
No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft-- ... unless there is available in the aircraft a current approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.3(b)
In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent required to meet that emergency.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.127(b)
Departures. Each pilot of an aircraft must comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in part 93 of this chapter.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.131(b)(2)
Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, no person may take off or land a civil aircraft at those airports listed in section 4 of appendix D of this part unless the pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.155(a)
Basic VFR weather minimums. Class E: At or above 10,000 feet MSL - 5 statute miles; 1,000 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 1 statute mile.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.125
Steady red - on the surface = Stop; in flight = Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.119(b)
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft below the following altitudes: ... Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 3-2-5 AIM
Class D Airspace - Generally, that airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operating control tower.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.103(b)
Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This information must include-- For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information: ... appropriate to the aircraft, relating to aircraft performance under expected values of airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind and temperature.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.107(a)
No pilot may take off a U.S.-registered civil aircraft ... unless each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness. No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, take off, or land ... unless each person on board has been notified to fasten his or her safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness. ... each person on board ... must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.155(a)
Basic VFR weather minimums. Class B - 3 statute miles; Clear of Clouds.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.203(a)
no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it the following: An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate. An effective U.S. registration certificate.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.209(a)
No person may: During the period from sunset to sunrise (or, in Alaska, during the period a prominent unlighted object cannot be seen from a distance of 3 statute miles or the sun is more than 6 degrees below the horizon)-- Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.211(a)
No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry-- At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the ... flight crew ... uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight ... that is of more than 30 minutes duration; At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the ... flight crew ... uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight ... ; and At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet (MSL) unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.215(b)(4)
... no person may operate an aircraft ...unless that aircraft is equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having Mode C capability ... in all airspace above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport upward to 10,000 feet MSL.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.303
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight-- Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement; Over an open air assembly of persons; Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport; Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal airway; Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.409(a)
no person may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, it has had-- An annual inspection in accordance with part 43 of this chapter and has been approved for return to service by a person authorized by Sec. 43.7 of this chapter.

Answer C is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.403(a)
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with part 39 (Airworthiness Directives) of this chapter.

Answer B is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.409(b)
... no person may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for hire, and no person may give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection ... The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.

Answer A is correct. Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules, Section 91.407(b)
No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until ... at least a private pilot ... flies the aircraft, makes an operational check ..., and logs the flight in the aircraft records.

Answer A is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.2
Serious injury means any injury which: requires hospitalization for more than 48 hrs.; results in a fracture of any bone (except ... fingers, toes, or nose); causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage; involves any internal organ; involves second or third degree burns or any burns affecting more than 5 percent of the body surface.

Answer A is correct. NTSB 830 Rules, Section 830.5(a)(b)
The operator of any civil aircraft ... shall immediately ... notify the nearest NTSB field office when: An aircraft accident or any of the following incidents occur: Flight control system malfunction or failure; Inability of ... flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties ...; In-flight fire; Aircraft collide in flight; Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 ...; An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 2-2
Negative flap is used at high speeds where wing lift reduction is desired to reduce drag.

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 1-6
Minimum total drag occurs at the airspeed where the induced and parasite drag curves intersect. This is the speed where the sailplane is operating with the best lift-to-drag ratio, or L/D.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 3-6
The elliptical wing is more efficient in terms of L/D, but the stall characteristics are not as good as the rectangular wing.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 3-7
Aspect ratio is determined by dividing the wingspan, by the average wing chord. High-aspect ratio wings produce a comparably high amount of lift at low angles of attack with less induced drag.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 3-7
Aspect ratio is determined by dividing the wingspan, by the average wing chord. High-aspect ratio wings produce a comparably high amount of lift at low angles of attack with less induced drag.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 3-7
Aspect ratio is determined by dividing the wingspan, by the average wing chord. High-aspect ratio wings produce a comparably high amount of lift at low angles of attack with less induced drag.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 4-8
A variometer with a total energy system senses changes in airspeed and tends to cancel out the resulting climb and dive indications (stick thermals).

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 5-13
Performance ballast is loaded into the glider to improve high-speed cruise performance.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 5-8
..flying a faster airspeed as the headwind increases will result in the greatest distance over the ground...add half the headwind component to the best L/D for the maximum distance.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 5-8
With ballast... the best glide ratio is the same but it occurs at a faster speed. Ballast should be used under stronger thermal conditions for better speed between thermals.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 6-3
A knot in a towrope reduces its strength by up to 50 percent.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 7-6
...the danger of fouling from a towrope failure or inadvertent release is greater when flying in the low tow position.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 7-16
During the launch, pilling back on the stick tends to increase airspeed, and pushing forward tends to reduce airspeed.

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 13-5
The distinct advantage of a CG hitch is that the sailplane can gain a greater altitude with a given line length. The CG hitch also reduces the pitch-up tendency should the cable or a safety link break.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 7-14
The tow speed can be determined by: Subtract the surface winds from the maximum placarded ground launch tow speed, an additional 5 mph for airspeed increase during climb, estimated wind gradient increase, a 5 mph safety factor.

Answer C is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 13-9
Above 200 feet, the pilot should begin increasing climb angle... As a guide, the pitch angle should not exceed 15o at 50 feet of altitude, 30o at 100 feet, and 45o at 200 feet.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 3-14
A spin can be defined as an aggravated stall that results in the glider descending in a helical, or corkscrew, path.

Answer A is correct. Joy of Soaring, Page 108
A pilot on final approach enters an area of lower headwind, perhaps as much as 10 to 15 mph less than he had a few seconds earlier. The glider sinks because the airflow across the wing is less than it was. Sinking increases the angle of attack; the wing may stall just where there isn't enough altitude for recovery.

Answer B is correct. Joy of Soaring, Page 110
When the pilot sees swirling dust, leaves or debris ahead, he has warning and should take instant action. He should close the spoilers and dive close to the ground to pick up airspeed. As soon as he is over the fence he should touch down at whatever airspeed, and while rolling try to stay out of the thermal.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 8-9
If level landing areas are not available and the landing must be made on a slope, it is better to land uphill than downhill.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-13 Glider Flying Handbook, Page 10-7
The first glider in a thermal establishes the direction of turn and all other gliders joining the thermal should turn in the same direction.

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 2-2
The all-important L/D, or glide ratio, never changes in relation to the airmass, because L/D is determined by the design of the sailplane. Glide angle with respect to the ground, however, reflects the direction and velocity of the airmass in which the sailplane flies.

Answer B is correct. Soaring Flight Manual, Page 16-8
It is advisable to slow the sailplane to minimum sink airspeed while passing through lift, even if a decision is made not to circle.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook, Page 2-3
Determine the CG by dividing the total moment by the total weight.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-2
Angle of Attack - the angle between the chord line of the wing and the direction of the relative wind.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-6
As the angle of attack is increased, the airstream is forced to travel faster because of the greater distance over the upper surface of the wing, creating a greater pressure differential between upper and lower surfaces. At the same time, the airstream is deflected downward at a greater angle, causing an increased opposite reaction. Both the increased pressure differential and the increased opposite reaction increase lift and also drag.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-7
Therefore, an airplane can be stalled in any attitude of flight with respect to the horizon, if the angle of attack is increased up to and beyond the critical angle of attack.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-5
Parasite drag can be further classified into form drag, skin friction, and interference drag.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-4
This single point is the center of lift, sometimes referred to as the center of pressure. The location of the center of pressure relative to the center of gravity is very important from the standpoint of stability.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-6
... the airspeed at which minimum drag occurs is the same airspeed at which the maximum lift-drag ratio (L/D) takes place.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Figure 1-15

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-8
An increase in ...(airspeed) increases lift and drag. Lift is increased because: the increased impact of the relative wind on the wing's lower surface creates a greater amount of air being deflected downward.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-4
Lift acts upward and perpendicular to the relative wind and to the wingspan.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-3
Bernoulli's Principle states in part that "the internal pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases." In other words, high speed flow is associated with low pressure, and low speed flow with high pressure.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-4
Thus both the development of low pressure above the wing and reaction to the force and direction of air as it is deflected from the wing's lower surface contribute to the total lift generated.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-12
Negative stability is in fact instability and can be illustrated by a ball on top of an inverted bowl. Even the slightest displacement of the ball will activate greater forces which will cause the ball to continue to move in the direction of the applied force.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-12
Static stability means that if the airplane's equilibrium is disturbed, forces will be activated which will initially tend to return the airplane to its original position.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-21, Flight Training Handbook, Page 275
Controllability. The capability of an airplane to respond to the pilot's control, especially with regard to flightpath and attitude.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-12
The three axes intersect at the center of gravity and each one is perpendicular to the other two.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-11
Neutral stability can be illustrated by a ball on a flat plane. If the ball is displaced, it will come to rest at some new, neutral position and show no tendency to return to its original position.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-11
Stability is the inherent ability of a body, after its equilibrium is disturbed, to develop forces or moments that tend to return the body to its original position.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-15
Three factors that affect lateral stability are: Dihedral; Sweepback; Keel Effect.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-19
A rule for determining the speed at which a wing will stall is that the stalling speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 1-20
The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing depends on how fast the airplane is flying. ...at speeds below design maneuvering speed, the airplane should stall before the load factor can become excessive. At speeds above maneuvering speed, the limit load factor for which the airplane is stressed can be exceeded by abrupt or excessive application of the controls or by strong turbulence.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Figure 1-15

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 2-2
The plain flap is a portion of the trailing edge of the wing on a hinged pivot...The split flap is a hinged portion of the bottom surface of the wing...The Fowler flap also slides rearward on tracks...The slotted flap lets a portion of the high pressure air beneath the wing travel through a slot.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-6
MAXIMUM STRUCTURAL CRUISING SPEED (the upper limit of the green arc). This is the maximum speed for normal operation.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 3-12
When on an east or west heading, no error is apparent while entering a turn to north or south; however, an increase in airspeed or acceleration will cause the compass to indicate a turn toward north; a decrease in airspeed or acceleration will cause the compass to indicate a turn toward south. If on a north or south heading, no error will be apparent because of acceleration or deceleration.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-21, Flight Training Handbook, Page 303
The recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes progressively more difficult as its center of gravity moves aft. This is particularly important in spin recovery, as there is a point in rearward loading of any airplane at which a "flat" spin will develop.

Answer C is correct. AC 61-21, Flight Training Handbook, Page 302
.. an airplane with forward loading is "heavier" and consequently slower than the same airplane with the center of gravity further aft. ..This requires a higher angle of attack of the wing, which results in more drag and, in turn, produces a higher stalling speed.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 4-3
Loading in a tail-heavy condition has a most serious effect upon longitudinal stability, and can reduce the airplane's capability to recover from stalls and spins. Another undesirable characteristic produced from tail-heavy loading is that it produces very light control forces.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 4-3
Loading in a tail-heavy condition has a most serious effect upon longitudinal stability, and can reduce the airplane's capability to recover from stalls and spins. Another undesirable characteristic produced from tail-heavy loading is that it produces very light control forces.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 4-16
From where the wind angle line and wind velocity line intersect, draw a straight line across the chart to determine the headwind component and draw a straight line down the chart to determine the crosswind component.

Answer A is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 4-14
Locate the outside air temperature at the bottom of the chart and draw a vertical line until it intersects with the pressure altitude. From where the temperature and pressure altitude lines intersect, draw a straight line to the left to determine the density altitude.

Answer B is correct. AC 61-23 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 9-3
The absorption of nicotine into the blood causes a corresponding drop in blood oxygen saturation and will lead to hypoxia.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 3-8
Ground effect is a condition of improved performance encountered when the aircraft is operating near the ground. A change occurs in the three-dimensional flow pattern around the airplane because the vertical component of airflow around the wing is restricted by the ground surface.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 4-6
If the nose starts to move before the bank starts, rudder is being applied too soon. If the bank starts before the nose starts turning, or the nose moves in the opposite direction, the rudder is being applied too late.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 4-4
In all ...constant airspeed turns, it is necessary to increase the angle of attack of the wing when rolling into the turn by applying up elevator. This is required because the total lift must be equal to the vertical component of lift plus the horizontal lift component.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 4-4
When applying aileron to bank the airplane, the lowered aileron (on the rising wing) produces a greater drag than the raised aileron (on the lowering wing). This increased drag yaws the airplane toward the rising wing, or opposite the direction of turn. To counteract this adverse yawing moment, rudder pressure must be applied simultaneously with aileron in the desired direction of turn.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 4-5
Because the outboard wing is developing more lift, it also has more induced drag. This causes a slight slip during steep turns that must be corrected by use of the rudder.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 5-1
Flight instructors should have their students maneuver the airplane at airspeeds in configurations that will be encountered during takeoffs, climbs, descents, go-around and approaches to landing. Flight should also be practiced at the slowest airspeed at which the airplane is capable of maintaining controlled flight without stalling.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 5-2
A stall occurs when the smooth airflow over the airplane's wing is disrupted, and the lift degenerates rapidly. This is caused when the wing exceeds its critical angle of attack. This can occur at any airspeed, in any attitude.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 5-9
If the airplane is slipping toward the inside of the turn at the time the stall occurs, it tends to roll rapidly toward the outside of the turn as the nose pitches down because the outside wing stalls before the inside wing. If the airplane is skidding toward the outside of the turn, it will have a tendency to roll to the inside of the turn because the inside wing stalls first. If the coordination of the turn at the time of the stall is accurate, the airplane's nose will pitch away from the pilot just as it does in a straight flight stall, since both wings will stall simultaneously.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 5-10
The objective of a cross-control stall demonstration maneuver is to show the effect of improper control technique and to emphasize the importance of using coordinated control pressures whenever making turns.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 5-11
The rising wing has a decreasing angle of attack, where the relative lift increases and the drag decreases. In effect, this wing is less stalled. Meanwhile, the descending wing has an increasing angle of attack, past the wing's critical angle of attack (stall) where relative lift decreases and drag increases.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 6-4
Since drift correction was held on the base leg, it is necessary to turn less than 90o to align the airplane parallel to the upwind leg. (Similarly the turn from upwind to crosswind requires less than 90o.)

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 7-6
If the pilot attempts to focus on a reference that is too close or looks directly down, the reference will become blurred, and the reaction will be either too abrupt or too late. In this case, the pilot's tendency will be to overcontrol, roundout high, and make full-stall drop-in landings. When the pilot focuses too far ahead, accuracy in judging the closeness of the ground is lost and the consequent reaction will be too slow since there will not appear to be a necessity for action, this will result in the airplane flying into the ground, nose first.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 8-6
The most effective method to prevent drift in primary training aircraft is the wing-low method. This technique keeps the longitudinal axis of the airplane aligned with both the runway and the direction of motion throughout the approach and touchdown.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 8-2
If the airspeed on final approach is excessive, it will usually result in the airplane floating.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 12-4
The direction and speed of the wind are important factors during any landing, particularly in an emergency landing, since wind affects the airplane's gliding distance over the ground, the path over the ground during approach, the groundspeed at which the airplane contacts the ground, and the distance the airplane rolls after the landing.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 6-6
Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) - Indicated airspeed corrected for installation error and instrument error. This error is generally greatest at low airspeeds. Refer to the airspeed calibration chart to correct for possible airspeed errors.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 4-2
Since the downward deflected aileron produces more lift, it also produces more drag. This added drag attempts to yaw the airplane's nose in the direction of the raised wing. This is called adverse yaw.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 8-6
To determine the loaded weight and CG: 1- List weight of airplane, occupants, etc. 2- Enter moment for each item (weight x arm = moment). 3- Total weights and moments. 4- To determine the CG, divide the total moment by the total weight.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 8-5
If the weight of any object or component is multiplied by the distance from the datum (arm), the product is the moment. ...Any combination of weight and distance which, when multiplied, produces (the required moment) will balance the board.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 8-5
If the weight of any object or component is multiplied by the distance from the datum (arm), the product is the moment. ...Any combination of weight and distance which, when multiplied, produces (the required moment) will balance the board.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 8-5
If the weight of any object or component is multiplied by the distance from the datum (arm), the product is the moment. ...Any combination of weight and distance which, when multiplied, produces (the required moment) will balance the board.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 6-15
The angular difference between magnetic north, the reference for the magnetic compass, and true north is variation.

Answer B is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-2
Circles parallel to the Equator (lines running east and west) are parallels of latitude. They are used to measure degrees of latitude north and south of the Equator. Meridians of longitude are drawn from the North Pole to the South Pole and are at right angles to the Equator. The "Prime Meridian" which passes through Greenwich, England, is used as the zero line from which measurements are made in degrees east and west to 180o.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Figure 14-18

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-8
To find the distance flown in a given time, multiply groundspeed by time.

Answer A is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-19
If the course selector is rotated until the deviation needle is centered, the radial (magnetic course "FROM" the station) or its reciprocal (magnetic course "TO" the station) can be determined. The course deviation needle will also move to the right or left if the aircraft is flown or drifting away from the radial which is set in the course selector.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 14-19
If the course selector is rotated until the deviation needle is centered, the radial (magnetic course "FROM" the station) or its reciprocal (magnetic course "TO" the station) can be determined. The course deviation needle will also move to the right or left if the aircraft is flown or drifting away from the radial which is set in the course selector.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-25 Pilotís Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Page 15-6
If symptoms of motion sickness are experienced during a lesson, opening the fresh air vents, focusing on objects outside the airplane, and avoiding unnecessary head movements may help alleviate some of the discomfort.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 2
Since most weather occurs in the troposphere and since most flying is in the troposphere and stratosphere, we restrict our discussions mostly to these two layers.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 9
This decrease of temperature with altitude is defined as lapse rate. The average decrease of temperature - average lapse rate - in the troposphere is 2 degrees C per 1,000 feet.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 9
An inversion often develops near the ground on clear, cool nights when wind is light. The ground radiates and cools much faster than the overlying air.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 7
The amount of solar energy received by any region varies with time of day, with seasons, and with latitude. These differences in solar energy create temperature variations. These temperature variations create forces that drive the atmosphere in its endless motions.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 20
At a specified indicated airspeed, your true airspeed and your groundspeed increase proportionally as density altitude becomes higher.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 12
Within the lower few thousand feet of the troposphere, pressure decreases roughly one inch for each 1,000 feet increase in altitude.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 29
The winds are clockwise around highs and counterclockwise around lows.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 35
A low or trough is an area of rising air. Rising air is conducive to cloudiness and precipitation; thus we have the general association of low pressure - bad weather.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 23
Differences in temperature create differences in pressure. These pressure differences drive a complex system of winds in a never ending attempt to reach equilibrium.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 38
The difference between air temperature and dew point temperature is popularly called the "spread." As spread becomes less, relative humidity increases, and it is 100% when temperature and dew point are the same.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 39
Some rain may reach the ground or it may evaporate as it falls into drier air. "Virga" - streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds but evaporating before reaching the ground.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 43
Ice pellets always indicate freezing rain at higher altitude.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 51
In a convective current, temperature and dew point converge at about 4.4 degrees F (2.5 degrees C) per 1,000 feet.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 42
A mass of air in which the temperature decreases rapidly with height favors instability; but, air tends to be stable if the temperature changes little or not at all with altitude.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 50
Since stable air resists convection, clouds in stable air form in horizontal, sheet-like layers or "strata." Thus, within a stable layer, clouds are stratiform. Adiabatic cooling may be by upslope flow; by lifting over cold, more dense air; or by converging winds.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 52
Nimbostratus is a gray or dark massive cloud layer, diffused by more or less continuous rain, snow, or ice pellets. Very little turbulence, but can pose a serious icing problem if temperatures are near or below freezing.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 64
Unstable Air: Cumuliform clouds; Showery precipitation; Rough air (turbulence); Good visibility, except in blowing obstructions.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 49
Surface heating or cooling aloft can make the air more unstable; on the other hand, surface cooling or warming aloft often tips the balance toward greater stability.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 64
Cool air moving over a warm surface is heated from below, generating instability.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 64
Unstable Air: Cumuliform clouds; Showery precipitation; Rough air (turbulence); Good visibility, except in blowing obstructions.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 86
When approaching mountains from the leeward side during strong winds, ... Climb to an altitude of 3,000 to 5,000 feet above the mountain tops before attempting to cross. The best procedure is to approach a ridge at a 45 degree angle to enable a rapid retreat to calmer air.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 88
A temperature inversion forms near the surface on a clear night with calm or light surface wind. Wind just above the inversion may be relatively strong. A wind shear zone develops between the calm and the stronger winds above. Eddies in the shear zone cause airspeed fluctuations as an aircraft climbs or descends through the inversion.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 88
A temperature inversion forms near the surface on a clear night with calm or light surface wind. Wind just above the inversion may be relatively strong. A wind shear zone develops between the calm and the stronger winds above. Eddies in the shear zone cause airspeed fluctuations as an aircraft climbs or descends through the inversion.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 85
Crests of the standing waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as "standing lenticular" clouds. They form in the updraft and dissipate in the downdraft, so they do not move as the wind blows through them.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 100
When an aircraft enters the heavy water concentrations found in cumuliform clouds, the large drops break and spread rapidly over the leading edge of the airfoil forming a film of water. If temperatures are freezing or colder, the water freezes quickly to form a solid sheet of clear ice.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 92
Two conditions are necessary for structural icing in flight: (1) the aircraft must be flying through visible water such as rain or cloud droplets, and (2) the temperature at the point where the moisture strikes the aircraft must be 0 degrees C or colder. Aerodynamic cooling can lower temperature of an airfoil to 0 degrees C even though the ambient temperature is a few degrees warmer.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloud base is your signal that a downdraft has developed and a cell has entered the mature stage.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
For a thunderstorm to form, the air must have (1) sufficient water vapor, (2) an unstable lapse rate, and (3) an initial boost (lifting) to start the storm process in motion.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 111
The key feature of the cumulus stage is an updraft.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 115
Hail has been observed in clear air several miles from the parent thunderstorm.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 114
A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often it develops ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may develop in unstable air far removed from any front. It often contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to aircraft.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 126
Conditions favorable for radiation fog are clear sky, little or no wind, and a small temperature-dew point spread (high relative humidity).

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 127
Advection fog is usually more extensive and much more persistent than radiation fog. Advection fog can move in rapidly regardless of the time of day or night.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 127
Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is common along coastal areas... Wind much stronger than 15 knots lifts the fog into a layer of low stratus or stratocumulus. This fog frequently forms offshore as a result of cold water and then is carried inland by the wind.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 126
Fog is a surface based cloud composed of either water droplets or ice crystals. Small temperature-dew point spread is essential for fog to form.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 128
When relatively warm rain or drizzle falls through cool air, evaporation from the precipitation saturates the cool air and forms fog. It is most commonly associated with warm fronts, but can occur with slow moving cold fronts and with stationary fronts.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 190
In the central and eastern United States, the most favorable weather for cross-country soaring occurs behind a cold front.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Figure 161
If thermals are to develop, the lapse rate must become equal to or greater than the dry adiabatic rate of cooling - that is, the line representing the lapse rate must slope parallel to or slope more than the dry adiabats.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 198
A strong mountain wave requires: 1. Marked stability in the airstream disturbed by the mountains. 2. Wind speed at the level of the summit should exceed a minimum which varies from 15 to 25 knots. 3. Wind direction should be within 30 degrees normal to the range.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 86
When approaching mountains from the leeward side during strong winds, ... Climb to an altitude of 3,000 to 5,000 feet above the mountain tops before attempting to cross. The best procedure is to approach a ridge at a 45 degree angle to enable a rapid retreat to calmer air.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 200
Turbulence is most frequent and most severe in the standing rotors just beneath the wave crests at or below the mountain-top levels.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 173
Cool air must sink to force warm air upward in thermals. Therefore, thermals and downdrafts coexist side by side. The net upward displacement of air must equal the net downward displacement. Fast rising thermals generally cover a small percentage of a convective area while slower downdrafts predominate over the remaining greater portion.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-6 Aviation Weather, Page 175
Stay out of the "eye" of the vortex.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 2-4
The wind element is reported as a five-digit group (six digits if speed is over 99 knots). The first three digits are the direction from which the wind is blowing in tens of degrees referenced to true north. The next two digits are the average speed in knots, or if over 99 knots, the next three digits. If the wind is gusty, G denoting gust is reported after the speed followed by the highest gust reported. The abbreviation KT is appended to denote the use of knots for wind speed.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 2-19
Temperature/dew point are reported in a two-digit form in whole degrees Celsius separated by a solidus (/). Temperatures below zero are prefixed with M.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Earlier Version 2-8
The maintenance flag ($) is automatically appended to the observation to indicate that the site may be in need of maintenance.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 2-9
BR is used to indicate mist restricting visibility and is used only when the visibility is from 5/8 mile to 6 miles. FG is used to indicate fog restricting visibility and is used only when visibility is less than 5/8 mile.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 3-2
/SK Sky cover: Describes cloud amount, height of cloud bases, and height of cloud tops. If unknown, use UNKN. Ex: /SK SCT040-TOP080

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-3
The valid period of the forecast is a two-digit date followed by the two-digit beginning and two-digit ending hours in UTC. Routine TAFs are valid for 24 hours and are issued four times daily at 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, and 1800Z.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-23
A SIGMET advises of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft... SIGMETs are issued when the following occur or are expected to occur: 1. Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms; 2. Severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms; 3. Duststorms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash lowering ... visibilities to below three miles; 4. Volcanic ash.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-25
There are three AIRMETs - Sierra, Tango, and Zulu. AIRMET Sierra describes IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscurations. AIRMET Tango describes moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds of 30 knots or greater, and/or nonconvective low-level wind shear. AIRMET Zulu describes moderate icing and provides freezing level heights.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-18
All heights are in hundreds of feet.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-25
There are three AIRMETs - Sierra, Tango, and Zulu. AIRMET Sierra describes IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscurations. AIRMET Tango describes moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds of 30 knots or greater, and/or nonconvective low-level wind shear. AIRMET Zulu describes moderate icing and provides freezing level heights.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 2-14
The height into an indefinite ceiling is preceded with VV followed by three digits indicating the vertical visibility in hundreds of feet above ground level.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 4-19
The synopsis is a brief summary of the location and movements of fronts, pressure systems, and other circulation features for an 18-hour period.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 5-1
A three-digit number near a front classifies it as to type, intensity, and character.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Figure 5-2
AC00-6A p71 - As adjacent air masses modify and as temperature and pressure differences equalize across a front, the front dissipates. This process (is) frontolysis. Frontogenesis is the generation of a front.

Answer C is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 6-4
The weather depiction chart is an ideal place to begin preparing for a weather briefing and flight planning. From this chart, one can get a "birdís eye" view of areas of favorable and adverse weather conditions for chart time.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 6-3
Overcast, visibility 5 in haze.
Broken sky cover, ceiling 1,200 feet, rain shower, visibility more than 6.

Answer A is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 9-2
A positive LI means a lifted surface parcel of air is stable. The more positive the LI, the more stable the air. Large positive values (+8 or greater) would indicate very stable air.

Answer B is correct. AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services, Page 11-4
The significant weather panels display forecast weather flying categories, freezing levels, and turbulence for the layer surface to FL240. A legend on the chart illustrates symbols and criteria used for these conditions.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 1-1-4(b)
To use the VOT service, tune in the VOT frequency on your VOR receiver. With the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) centered, the omni-bearing selector should read 0 degrees with the to/from indication showing "from" or the omni-bearing selector should read 180 degrees with the to/from indication showing "to."

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 1-1-3(c)
The only positive method of identifying a VOR is by its Morse Code identification or by the recorded automatic voice identification...During periods of maintenance, the facility may radiate a T-E-S-T code or the code may be removed.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-8(b)(1)
Runway Holding Position Sign: This sign is located at the holding position on taxiways that intersect a runway or on runways that intersect other runways.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-8(b)(4)
No Entry Sign: This sign prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. Typically, this sign would be located on a taxiway intended to be used in only one direction or at the intersection of vehicle roadways with runways, taxiways or aprons where the roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-10(c)
DIRECTION SIGNS Direction signs are normally located on the left prior to the intersection. When used on a runway to indicate an exit, the sign is located on the same side of the runway as the exit.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-3(h&i)
The portion of the runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold. A demarcation bar delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway. Chevrons are used to show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff, and taxiing. Chevrons are yellow.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-3(b)
The runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic azimuth of the centerline of the runway,...letters differentiate between left (L), right (R), or center (C), parallel runways.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-11(a)
DESTINATION SIGNS Destination signs also have a yellow background with a black inscription indicating a destination on the airport. These signs always have an arrow showing the direction of the taxiing route to that destination.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 2-3-3(h&i)
The portion of the runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold. A demarcation bar delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway. Chevrons are used to show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff, and taxiing. Chevrons are yellow.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-2-2(a)
Class A Airspace Definition: Generally, that airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-2-4(a)
Class C airspace...usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-2-4(a)
Class C airspace...usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-2-5(a)
Class D Airspace Definition: Generally, that airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be designed to contain the procedures.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-2-6(e)(7)
Unless designated at a lower altitude, Class E airspace begins at 14,500 feet MSL to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

Answer B is correct. Terminal Area Chart, Legend
Also applicable to Class C airspace.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-2-4(d)(2)
Class C Equipment:(a) Two-way radio, and (b) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, an operable radar beacon transponder with automatic altitude reporting equipment.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-2-5(b)
During the hours the tower is not in operation, the Class E surface area rules or a combination of Class E rules to 700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface will become applicable.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-4-3(a)
Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft or its occupants.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-4-5(c)
Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within a MOA when military activity is being conducted. Prior to entering an active MOA, pilots should contact the controlling agency for traffic advisories.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-4-6
Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. All activity within an alert area shall be conducted in accordance with CFRs, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transiting the area shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-5-1(a)
The airport advisory area is the area within 10 statute miles of an airport where a control tower is not operating but where a FSS is located. At such locations, the FSS provides advisory service to arriving and departing aircraft.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Table 4-1-1
No Tower, FSS, or UNICOMSelf-announce on MULTICOM frequency 122.910 miles out. Entering downwind, base, and final. Leaving the runway.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-1-13(b)
The ceiling/sky condition, visibility, and obstructions to vision may be omitted from the ATIS broadcast if the ceiling is above 5,000 feet and the visibility is more than 5 miles.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 3-2-3(b)(6)
Mode C Veil: The airspace within 30 NM of ... primary airports within Class B airspace areas, from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL. Unless otherwise authorized ... aircraft operating within this airspace must be equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having Mode C capability.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 4-3-3

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Figure 4-3-3
1 - Enter pattern in level flight abeam the midpoint of the runway, at pattern altitude.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-1-24(d)(4)
An individual microburst will seldom last longer than 15 minutes from the time it strikes the ground until dissipation. The horizontal winds continue to increase during the first 5 minutes with the maximum intensity winds lasting approximately 2-4 minutes.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-1-24(d)(2)
The downdrafts can be as strong as 6,000 feet per minute. Horizontal winds near the surface can be as strong as 45 knots resulting in a 90 knot shear (headwind to tailwind change for a traversing aircraft) across the microburst.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 7-1-24(d)(4)
An individual microburst will seldom last longer than 15 minutes from the time it strikes the ground until dissipation. The horizontal winds continue to increase during the first 5 minutes with the maximum intensity winds lasting approximately 2-4 minutes.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Figure 7-3-1

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-2(d)(2)
The recommended waiting time before going to flight altitudes of up to 8,000 feet is at least 12 hours after diving which has not required controlled ascent, and at least 24 hours after diving which required controlled ascent. The waiting time before going to flight altitudes above 8,000 feet should be at least 24 hours after any SCUBA dive.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-2(a)(1)
Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the brain and other organs. Hypoxia from exposure to altitude is due only to the reduced barometric pressures encountered at altitude, for the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere remains about 21 percent from the ground out to space.

Answer A is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-3(a)
Hyperventilation, or an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs, can occur subconsciously when a stressful situation is encountered in flight. As hyperventilation "blows off" excess carbon dioxide from the body, a pilot can experience symptoms of lightheadedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling in the extremities and coolness.

Answer B is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-2(a)(1)
Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the brain and other organs. Hypoxia from exposure to altitude is due only to the reduced barometric pressures encountered at altitude, for the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere remains about 21 percent from the ground out to space.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-5(b)(3)(e)
Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height, and atmospheric haze the illusion of being at a greater distance from the runway.

Answer C is correct. AIM Aeronautical Information Manual, Paragraph 8-1-6(c)(2)
Effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each movement should not exceed 10 degrees, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable detection.

Answer B is correct. Airport/Facility Directory, Legend 19
Remarks-Data is confined to operational items affecting the status and usability of the airport. Parachute Jumping - See "PARACHUTE" tabulation for details.

Answer A is correct. Sectional Aeronautical Chart, Legend

Answer B is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 13
ADM addresses the following five hazardous attitudes. Antiauthority; Impulsivity; Invulnerability; Macho; Resignation

Answer B is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 4-2
These dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns, which must be identified and eliminated, include: Peer Pressure; Mind Set; Get-There-Itis; Duck-Under Syndrome; Scud Running; Continuing visual flight rules (VFR) into instrument conditions; Getting Behind the Aircraft; Loss of Positional or Situation Awareness; Operating Without Adequate Fuel Reserves; Descent Below the Minimum Enroute Altitude; Flying Outside the Envelope; Neglect of Flight Planning, Preflight Inspections, Checklists, Etc.

Answer A is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Definition j
Risk Elements in ADM take into consideration the four fundamental risk elements: the pilot, the aircraft, the environment, and the type of operation that comprise any given aviation situation.

Answer B is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 14-a
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. Recognition of hazardous thoughts is the first step in neutralizing them in the ADM process. This chapter is designed to familiarize the pilot with a means of counteracting hazardous attitudes with an appropriate antidote thought.

Answer B is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 6
Each ADM student should take the Self-Assessment Hazardous Attitude Inventory Test in order to gain a realistic perspective on his/her attitudes toward flying.

Answer A is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 14-a
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. Recognition of hazardous thoughts is the first step in neutralizing them in the ADM process. This chapter is designed to familiarize the pilot with a means of counteracting hazardous attitudes with an appropriate antidote thought.

Answer A is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 23-b
1. Detect. The decision maker detects the fact that change has occurred. 2. Estimate. The decision maker estimates the need to counter or react to the change. 3. Choose. The decision maker chooses a desirable outcome (in terms of success) for the flight. 4. Identify. The decision maker identifies actions which could successfully control the change. 5. Do. The decision maker takes the necessary action. 6. Evaluate. The decision maker evaluates the effect(s) of his action countering the change.

Answer C is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 2-a
Steps for good decision making are:(1) Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight. (2) Learning behavior modification techniques. (3) Learning how to recognize and cope with stress. (4) Developing risk assessment skills. (5) Using all resources in a multicrew situation. (6) Evaluating the effectiveness of one's ADM skills.

Answer C is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 4
There are a number of classic behavioral traps into which pilots have been known to fall. Pilots, particularly those with considerable experience, as a rule always try to complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and generally demonstrate that they have the "right stuff."

Answer A is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Section 33-a
Students must be exposed to this material early in their pilot training, ideally during the first quarter of the student standard private pilot training course.

Answer B is correct. AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making, Definition i
Risk Management is the part of the decision making process which relies on situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight.

Answer B is correct. Aviation Instructor's Handbook, Page 9-8
The purpose (of distractions) is to determine that pilots possess the skills required to cope with distractions while maintaining the degree of aircraft control required for safe flight.

Answer C is correct. FAA-H-8083-3, Airplane Flying Handbook, Page 13-5
Industrial oxygen is not intended for breathing and may contain impurities, and medical oxygen contains water vapor that can freeze in the regulator when exposed to cold temperatures.

Answer B is correct. Aeronautical Information Manual, Section 8-1-8(f)
Remember, most collisions occur during days when the weather is good.


© 2005 Jim D. Burch 602-942-2734 jdburch@att.net